Pagea43Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers
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Questions
1. Shorter airports may have 'halfway' signs. What action is the pilot expected to take?
2. Where can we expect to find wind shear?
3. What direction should be flown at 4500 AGL?
4. What V-speed is best for missing an FAA tree on takeoff?
5. What wind direction is most likely to tip over a high-wing aircraft?
6. What C.G. condition will make stall recovery difficult to impossible?
7. Where would you look for freezing level and areas of icing aloft?
8. In order, what fronts bring the worst weather?
9. He asked me do a performance problem (takeoff distance), gave me all the variables and left the room.
10. Why, in my POH performance charts, does engine speed RPM increase at a constant % power when you increase the pressure altitude and temperature,

Answer
1. If 70% of liftoff speed is not attained at the halfway sign, abort the takeoff.
2. Wind shear can be expected in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and at the edges of clear air turbulence.
3. At 4500 AGL any direction westward of 180 to 360 may be flown (don't get picky)
4. Vx gives the most altitude over the shortest distance.
5. A quartering tailwind is the most hazardous.
6. An aft C.G. will make stall recovery difficult.
7. The Area Forecast would have information about freezing level and icing aloft.
8. The acronym is COWS -cold, occluded, warm, and stationary. Follow up was why are cold fronts first?
9. When he came back, the only question he asked was what the pressure altitude was - because that is what you use for the charts.
10. At higher DA's, less air is available to the engine so you must increase the RPM (and decrease the air/fuel mixture to maintain an efficient burn) in order to maintain a given percentage of power. As the density altitude gets *lower* the engine uses more air and more fuel to produce up to and beyond 100% of the horsepower it's rated for at sea level on a standard day.

Question
1. When is a landing light required for VFR night flights?

2. When should a pilot expect a wind direction change along with low-level wind shear?

3. When can you expect to experience turbulence near mountain ridges?

4, What must you be able to do to correct for loss of performance on leaving ground effect.

5. Why is traffic seen under hazy conditions dangerous?

6. What can be expected if you hyperventilate? (Take rapid breaths)

7. Whether you have Stratiform or cumuliform clouds depends on…?

8. Upon what two factors is the hemispheric rule based?

9. What is the simple formula for conversion of Celsius to Fahrenheit?

10. What is the simple formula for conversion of Fahrenheit to Celsius?

Answer
1. Landing lights are required for VFR night flights performed for hire.

2. A low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above will give shear with change in wind direction.

3. Worse turbulence can be expected on the lee side of the ridges when flying into the wind.

4. Once out of ground effect you will have increased induced drag because of increased angle of attack.
Additional power must be available to correct for this condition. or a descent must be accepted.

5. Traffic seen umber hazy conditions is much closer than it appears.

6. Hyperventilation will cause drowsiness.

7. The stability of the air lifting the clouds.

8. The hemispheric rule is based upon magnetic course and altitude above 3000 feet above ground level.

9. F =C2 + 30

10. C - (F - 30)/2

Question

1, What does PARE have to do with spin recovery?

2. What element must be added to a stall to precipitate a spin?

3. What are some yaw sources other than those of the rudder?

4. In a stall from a skid what will the resulting spin direction?

5. In a stall from a slip what will be the resulting spin direction?

6. Why are some aircraft placarded against intentional spins?
7. When should flaps be removed?
8. What is the maximum G-load allowed for flaps extended?
9. What are the placarded differences between the three aircraft categories?

10. What is the definition of an aerobatic maneuver?

11. At what point does an incipient spin become a spin?
12. What spin elements are stabilized in a fully developed spin?

13. Define a stall.

14. Define AOA.

15. What is the primary airspeed control for a given configuration and AOA.

Answer
1. Power off, Ailerons neutral, Rudder opposite TC, Elevator forward is SOP for spin recovery.

2. A stall cannot turn into a spin without the addition of yaw.

3. Yaw can be caused by ailerons and propeller thrust as well as by rudder.
4. In a skid both controls are in the same direction. The spin will be in the direction of the controls.

5. In a slip opposite rudder and aileron is applied. The spin will be opposite to the applied aileron.

6. Some aircraft are placarded against intentional spins since their spins may become uncontrollable.

7. Once in a spin the flaps should be removed only when the rotation has ceased.

8. The maximum G-load capability of flaps is 2-Gs.
9. Normal category is placarded against spins. Utility category lists allowable maneuvers. Acrobatic category gives
allowable maneuvers and entry speeds (and more).

10. An acrobatic maneuver is any that exceeds 60 degrees of bank and 30 degrees of pitch.

11. An incipient spin becomes a spin once rotation is established.

12. A fully developed steady state spin has constant rate of rotation, speed and vertical speed.

13. A stall is a lost of lift and an increase in drag that occurs when an aircraft is flown at an angle of attack greater than the
angle for maximum lift.

14. The AOA is the angle between the chordline of the wing and the relative wind.

15. The elevator is the primary airspeed control for a given configuration and AOA.

Question
1. What is the principal cause of a stall?

2. Where can you best determine the effects of flaps on stall speeds?

3. What is Vso?

4. What is Vs1(subscript)?

5. What is Va?

6. What is load factor?

7. What can occur in a constant rate turn in which the angle of bank is allowed to increase?

8. What is the effect on the elevator if flown with an aft CG?

9. What happens to stall speed with increases in weight?

10. What changes occur in an aircraft's indicated stall speed with an increase in altitude?

11. How can a pilot protect the aircraft from turbulence caused stall?

12. When are stalls resulting from improper airspeed management most likely to occur?

13. What is the key procedure required to initiate a stall recovery?

14. What is the cause of a secondary stall?

15. What is the maneuver in which an aircraft descends in a helicial path while flying at greater than the critical AOA?

16. How is an incipient spin distinguished from a fully developed steady state spin?

17. How is the pitch attitude of a spin different from that of a flat spin?

18. What is the most distinguishing characteristic of a spiral from a spin?

Answer
1. The stall is the result of excessive angle of attack, not insufficient airspeed.
2. You can best determine flap effects on stalls by reference to the airspeed indicator markings.

---The power-off stall in landing configuration is the low end of the white arc

---The power-off stall in clean configuration is the low end of the green arc.

3. Vso is the stall speed or minimum steady flight speed possible in a landing configuration

4. Vs1 (subscript) is the stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.

5. Va is the design maneuvering speed. The speed above which full or abrupt control movements may result in structural damage.

6. Load Factor is the ratio of the lifting force produced by the wings to the actual weight of the aircraft including its contents. Load factors are expressed in G's.

7. The increase load factors of the steeper banks will cause an increase in the stall speed.

8. An aft CG causes elevator forces required for movement to be very light. Light elevator forces can cause over-control and abrupt stall entries that may be unrecoverable.

9. As weight increases so does the indicated stall speed.

10. There is little effect in indicated stall speed with changes in altitude.

11. Flying as fast as possible below Va is a protection against turbulence caused stalls.

12. Distraction of the pilot is the most common cause of airspeed management related stalls.

13. The key factor in recovering from a stall is regaining control by reducing the AOA.

14. Hurrying the completion of the primary stall most likely causes a secondary stall.

15. This is the basic definition of a spin.

16, The spin is distinguished from the incipient spin by the addition of an established rotation.

17, A spin has a marked nose down attitude. A flat spin is near level in pitch and roll.

18. Instrument readings are essentially the same except for the higher and increasing airspeed of the spiral. A spin is a low airspeed maneuver except after recovery.

Question
1. A landing on a narrower than usual runway will give what sensations?

2. What is autokinesis?

3. How might a runway in featureless terrain appear?

4. What illusion occurs at night during rapid acceleration?

5. An abrupt level off from a climb at night causes what illusion?

6. What visual hazard exists when flying on a clear night?

7. What landing incident is likely to occur when landing in heavy rain?

8. What illusion occurs if you move your head during a turn?

Answers:

1. A narrow runway gives the impression that you are higher than you are above the runway.
2. Autokinesis is a visual illusion at night where a single light seems to move when stared at.

3. The relative height distance between aircraft and runway will appear greater than it is.

4. The somatogravic illusion occurs giving a sense of extreme nose-high attitude when accelerating along the ground without outside cues.

5. The inversion illusion occurs when a night or in the cloud climb returns to level flight. This sensation makes you feel as though you were tumbling backwards.

6. On a clear night lighted object appears farther away and higher than it is.

7. Windshield rain gives an illusion of height. Aircraft tend to land short of the runway.

8. A rapid head movement during a turn may cause the coriolis illusion which may be a sense of pitching up or down, or rolling left or right.

Questions

1. What defines the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind?

2. Probable cause of high oil temperature and cylinder head temperatures above normal is?

3. What is the probable cause of a rough engine during carburetor heat check?

4. You have leaned at 10,000' for best operation. You descend to 4000' without any mixture adjustment. What happens?

5. How does C.H affect the mixture setting?

6. How can you make the engine to continue to operate if you have leaned, applied C.H. and leaned still further till the engine barely operates?

7. What is probable cause for engine to exceed its normal operating temperatures?

8. High engine temperatures can be related to what oil condition?
9. What is the purpose of making your first clearing turn to the left?
10. A pilot who services the wheel bearings of an aircraft is considered to be doing what?

11. Weather forecasts covering several states is called an…?

12. A red rectangle with a centered white circle with a white - inside means…?

13. What is the significance of a large area covered with evenly spaced diagonal yellow lines?

14. What illusions occur when flying in and out of clouds?

15. What illusion occurs due to reflected light on the canopy?

16. In a high density situation, what could cause a carburetor heat check fail to show a drop in rpm or power?

Answers

1. The angle of attack is defined as the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

2. Excessive power on a lean mixture causes high engine operating temperatures.

3. Lean mixture and run another C.H. check.

4. Your aircraft will be running on an excessively lean mixture.
5. The addition of hot air enriches the mixture.

6. Pumping the primer will make the engine continue to put out power.
7. Use of a fuel that is less than required fuel specifications will cause excess temperatures.
8. High engine temperatures can be caused by low oil level.

9. You should make your first clearing turns to the left because following traffic will be passing to your right.
10. Servicing wheel bearings is considered to be pilot authorized preventative maintenance.
11. Area forecasts cover weather conditions over several states.

12. Red rectangle with white circle and white - inside identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited.

13. This is a 'taxiway ending marker and says that the taxiway stops at the intersection.

14. Flying in and out of clouds make it appear that you are climbing and changing speeds.

15. Reflected canopy light make is appear as though the airplane is in a steep turn and lower than it is.

16. A well leaned mixture can cause a carburetor heat check not to show a drop.

Question
1. How are runway lengths rounded off when published on sectionals?

2. What is the meaning of "over-square" engine operation?

3. What is a cyclone?

4. How are the full needle deflections of a VOR different from those of an ILS?

5. What is the full name of the altitude measuring device used in aircraft?

6. What does the altimeter measure?

7. How do you determine and use pressure altitude?

8. By setting in the local altimeter setting at an airport what are you really setting?

9. What is the altitude setting given to you by a radar facility?

10. How are the elevations of obstacles measured on charts?

11. How can a pilot make indicated altitude approximate true altitude?

12. What is the height above charted terrain by a radar altimeter called?

13. How is mean sea level determined?

Answer
1. The rounding number used for runways is 70 feet not the usual 50 feet.
2. Over-square engine operation means that the manifold pressure in inches will exceed rpm in hundreds.
3. A cyclone is a low-pressure area.

4. The full VOR needle deflection is at 10 degrees, that of the Localizer is 2.5 degrees and the glideslope is .7 degrees.

The glideslope is 3.6 times more sensitive than the localizer and 14.3 times as sensitive as the VOR.

5. Aircraft use a sensitive pressure altimeter. The word 'sensitive' applies to the setting of the local altitude using the knob that moves the readings of the Kollsman window. The pressure altimeter part applies to its function as an aneroid barometer that varies via gears to translate outside air pressures into footage measurements on a dial or meter.

6. The altimeter measures the absolute pressure as caused by the weight of the air above the aircraft at a given moment.

7. You measure pressure altitude by setting 29.92 into the Kollsman window. In conjunction with temperature the pressure altitude is used to determine density altitude. The 29.92 altimeter setting is used by all aircraft above 18,000 feet.

8. The local altimeter setting is the elevation of the airport above mean sea level.

9. Radar facilities are required to make at least one altitude check per contact with aircraft to confirm that the aircraft has been given and has set the local altimeter setting. The blind altimeter associated with the transponder altitude encoder is always set to 29.92 and the appropriate local corrections are made by the ground computer. Allowable error is 300 feet.

10. Elevations of all obstacles are measured from mean sea level (MSL). Additionally, man-made obstacles may have and above ground level measurement. (AGL)

11. Any time you set in 29.92 into the Kollsman window the altimeter is reading close to true altitude. This is the height above sea level.

12. Radar altimeters measure absolute altitude. First used in WWII.

13. Mean sea level is an imaginary level halfway between the average range of the tidal highs and lows of the ocean. It is a type of average tide level.

Question
1. Of the four following stalls, which are parts of a specific PTS
. Accelerated, power-on or power-off, imminent
2. Upon receiving the necessary instruction and an endorsement from an autholorized instructor who gave the training, how soon can an applicant who fails a practical test apply for retesting?
3. What is the all-inclusive requirement for an aircraft used in taking the PTS?
4. May a pilot with a third-class medical take the commercial practical test?
5. The tests for pilot certification are referenced according to norms, or criteria, or evaluation?.
6. What is the universal PTS standard used to ensure a high lever of performance by all pilots?
7. What level of learning is tested by giving a simulated engine failure?
8. A series of jagged yellow VVVVV s at the end of a taxiway indicate what?
9. What is the purpose of a yellow sign with a single letter and an arrow?
10. What is the purpose of a black sign with a yellow outline about a yellow letter?
11. What is the purpose of the white dashed lines on a holding bay? _ _ _ _ _
----------
12. What is the purpose of the black stepladder like sign on a yellow background?
13. How can you understand better that upper level winds/weather drives lower level winds and weather?
14.When weather charts show a high northeast of a low, what can you expect?
15. What separations are required by heavy aircraft departing the same runway?

Answer
1. The accelerated is no longer required by any PTS; The imminent is part of the private pilot PTS; The power on and power off are part of the instructor PTS.
2. Application may be submitted immediately.
3. aircraft must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibits its use in any required area of operation.
4. Yes he can take and pass the test but cannot fly as a commercial pilot until getting a class-two medical.
5. PTS are referenced by evaluation.
6. Safety is the overriding requirement.
7. The simulated emergency requires that the pilot apply learning. (Application)
8. This is called demarcation bar markings used to indicate a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway preceeding the runway.
9. The yellow sign with a letter followed by an arrow gives name and direction of taiway out of intersection.
10. The black sign with yellow outline about a yellow letter names the taxiway.
11. The holding bay holds the aircraft for operational purposes.
12. The yellow sign with a black stepladder on it itentifies the exit boundary for the ILWS critical area. This is the area where an aircraft or vehicle could interfere with the ILS signal.
13. Become familiar with the 500mb chart which is about 18,000'.
14. Expect gusty strong winds from the east and southeast.
15. Controllers are required to provide 3-minutes of separation behind heavy aircraft

Question
1. Why are the doors of most Piper aircraft on the right side?
2. When can a displaced threshold be used?
3. What is the force causing forward motion in a gliding aircraft?
4. How is the indication of the turn coordinator and the needle turn indicator different?
5. What is VOT?
6. What are the narrow gray lines on a sectional will have IR and VR followed by a number?
7. A small box in remote areas lists a radio frequency with the letter RCO. What is it?
8. Airways may have MOCA as an altitude. What is it?
9. What has an FSS to do with an LAA?
10. An instrument pilot needs to know what an IAWP is.
11. Inside a VOR box on the sectional there may be a little circle with an H in it. What is it?
12. What's the word meaning for CTAF?
13. What is the word meaning for ATIS?
14. How many satellites make up the GPS system?
15. LAHS0 procedures requires what visibility minimums.
16. What device is required to assure the completion of repetitive tasks?
17. How are significant clouds and weather FA forecasts spread over an area?
18. What are the minimum VFR conditions for Class D airspace?
19. What is the group term used for single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea aircraft?
20. How long will a first-class medical certificate be valid for a young private pilot?
21. How does the airflow into the Pitot tube affect the airspeed indicator.
22. What causes detonation in an aircraft engine?
23. How is the fourth GPS satellite required for position used?

Answer
1. The door is on the right side because of the wider doorpost required. On the right side it obstructs the pilot's visibility less than it would on the left side. C-210P is an exception.
2. The surface of a displaced threshold may be used for takeoff but not for landing. It may be used for landing role at the far end of a runway. It may be used to takeoff at either end.
3. Gravity.
4. The turn coordinator senses both roll and yaw, a turn indicator senses just yaw.
5. The VOT is the FAA's preferred way of testing the accuracy of a VOR. Test sites in the AIM.
6. These are high-speed military training routes either VFR or IFR and high or low level up to 20 nm wide.
7. RCO is a remote communications outlet used via landline to make contact with an FSS.
8. The MOCA is the minimum obstacle clearance altitude that assures reception within 22 miles of VOR.
9. This is where a flight service station gives local airport advisories.
10. An IAWP is an initial approach waypoint. (GPS)
11. This is a FSS transcribed hazardous in-flight weather advisory service warning over the VOR frequency.
12. The CTAF is the common traffic advisory frequency for use at non-tower airports or when tower closed.
13. The ATIS is the automatic terminal information system giving airport weather, wind, runway and freqs.
14. 24. See AIM 1-1-21
15. 3 statute mile visibility is required for land and hold short operations. See AIM 4-3-11
16. The checklist makes it possible to complete repetitive tasks that long-term memory will forget.
17. FA forecasts of SIG CLDS AND WX are given state by state.
18. Class D airspace minimums are a ceiling of 1000 feet and three statute mile ground visibility.
19. SEL, SES; MEL, MES are airplane 'classes'.
20. three years.
21. It doesn't. There is NO airflow into the pitot tube. Only air pressure impacts the pitot tube opening.
22. Detonation is caused when unburned fuel explodes from internal head/pressure instead of burning from the spark of the ignition system.
23. The fourth satellite is used to verify the time clock settings of the other three required satellites.

Question
1. How is the load factor of a banking aircraft related to the stall speed?
2. While any private pilot can get a clearance into Class B airspace, what is required of a student pilot?
3. What does an ATC clearance give the pilot?
4. Which ATC clearance seldom if ever uses the word 'cleared'.
5. What three atmospheric conditions reduce aircraft performance?
6. What is the usefulness of knowing Va for a given aircraft weight?
7. What will be true about every altitude when standard conditions exist?
8. What is the best way to recover from a disorienting graveyard spiral?
9. During a spin what is the stall condition of both wings?
10. What is the determining factor for flying in ground effect?
11. What is the effect of speed changes on the compass when heading East or West?
12. What causes the left turning tendency of P-factor.
13. What is the meaning of EFAS? What does it do?
14. Define the term, angle of attack.
15. What is the significance of rain falling out of a thunderstorm?
16. What is the gallon amount of 55 pounds of gasoline?

Answer
1. A bank of 60 degrees doubles the load factor to 2-Gs but the stall speed is 141-percent of level stall speed.
Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor. A 4-G load doubles the stall speed.
2. A student pilot in order to fly into Class B airspace is required to get a Class B checkout, a logbook endorsement for flight into Class B and the Class B must be one that allows such a student flight.
3. A clearance is an authorization to move an aircraft under specified conditions in controlled airspace or ground space.
4. ATC taxi movements are clearances usually without the word 'cleared'.
5. Aircraft performance is reduced at high altitudes, hot temperatures and high humidity.
6. A pilot should know that Va is a speed at which abrupt maneuvers using full control authority can be made without aircraft damage. The POH published Va is for gross weight. The critical Va speed increases the lighter the aircraft.
7. When standard conditions exist, regardless of the altitude, the altimeter will give the correct altitude when the Kollsman window is set to 29.92.
8. Disorientation, regardless of the cause, is best overcome by relying upon your instruments for recovery.
9. During a spin both wings are stalled.
10. The results of ground effect are determined by the length of the aircraft wings.
11. Any increase in speed will cause the compass to turn toward the North, a decrease in speed will cause the compass to turn toward the South.
12. The descending blade on the right has a higher angle of thrust than the left blade. The pull from the right being greater turns the aircraft to the left.
13. EFAS means enroute flight advisory service. It is commonly called Flight Watch on 122.0 for general aviation and 135.7 for airliners or special situations by general aviation. This is a weather advisory service.
14. The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the wind caused by the aircraft movement called the relative wind.
15. Rain falling out of a thunderstorm indicates that it is in the beginning of the mature stage.
16. 55 pounds divided by 6 pounds per gallon = 9.2 (rounded) gallons

Question
1. What is the engine situation when the mixture is richer than required for best operation?

2. What is a major cause of non-rain moisture in fuel tanks?

3. How does ground-effect improve aircraft performance?

4. To what extent can aircraft wreckage be moved?

5. What is the effect of a turn on aircraft load factor?

6. What is the absolute lowest it is legal to operate an aircraft?

7. Where is three-o'clock on an aircraft?

8. What paperwork is required to return an aircraft to service after an annual inspection?

9. What are the key words used in the call-up to a Flight Watch regarding your location?

10. What are the key words used in the call-up to an FSS regarding your location?

11. What is the purpose of monitoring 121.5 prior to engine shut down?

12. What term is used to describe an area of stable air?

13. On landing, when should a pilot contact ground control?

14. With oxygen available, what is the non-FAR optimum altitudes of use day and night?

15. lWhat paperwork is required of a certificated person performing prevenative maintenance on an aircraft?

Answers

1. A rich mixture provides more fuel than can be properly burned inside the cylinder. The excess fuel then provides cooling for the engine by absorbing heat.

2. Tanks with air can have varying day and night temperatures that will condense the moisture in the air into water in the fuel tanks.

3. The closer to the ground the aircraft gets within a half a wingspan without touching the greater the reduction in induced drag. The aircraft can stay aloft with less power or float further without power.

4. Wreckage can be moved to remove the dead and injured but otherwise only to prevent further damage.

5. Any turn in an aircraft increases the load factor logarithmically. A 30-degree bank increases load from straight and level by .15; a 60-degree bank doubles the load factor.

6. An aircraft may legally fly so low as to land without persons or property.

7. Three o'clock is off the right wingtip.

8. The required logbook entries must be made.

9. You name the closest VOR to tell Flight Watch your relative location.

10. You give the frequency you are listening to when advising the FSS of how to contact you.

11. You monitor 121.5 prior to engine shutdown to confirm that your ELT has not been activated and to check
the surrounding area to confirm no other ELT has been activated.

12. A region of stable air is called an inversion.

13. Normally, a pilot clearning a runway is supposed to stop when passing clear of the holding bars and wait
for tower to give the required change of frequency authorization to ground.

14, Non-FAR optimum oxygen use should begin at 10,000' day and 5,000' night.

15. Any prevenative mainteance requires an entry in the aircraft maintenance records giving the signature, certificate number, kind of certificate held, and a description of the work must be made.

Question
1. What are the primary controls?

2. What are secondary controls?

3. What are the colors and meanings of a tri-color VASI?

4. At what points will there be no compass turn errors in a standard rate 360 turn?

5. What is the proper procedure for changing transponder codes?

6. When is a situation an emergency?

7. What pilot procedures are recommended when encountering turbulence?

8. In what deceptive ways will density altitude landings and takeoffs affect ground speed?

9. How does the pilot utilize the lower stall speed and greater lift provided by flaps and slots?

10. What changes take place in the trim when the primary control is moved?

11. Name the three persons responsible for aircraft airworthiness.

12. How can an aircraft be legally altered while maintaining airworthiness?

13. What words describe the FAR requirement that a pilot be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use and alternatives if the flight cannot be completed?

14. Under what conditions of engine operation might the density of air entering the carburetor decrease and the amount of fuel remains constant?

15. The clockwise rotation of a propeller has what effect on the aircraft?

16. What is the effect should the grounding wire between the magneto and the ignition switch become disconnected?

Answer
1. Primary controls are rudder, elevators and ailerons.

2. Secondary controls are flaps and trim

3. The Tri-color VASI has red for low, green for on slope, and amber for high.

4. The compass will read correctly when reading east and west during a 360 standard rate turn.

5. To change transponder codes first write the new code, read it back to ATC, turn selector to STAND-BY,
put in new code numbers and put selector to altitude.

6. An emergency exists when flight safety is at risk through factors of situational awareness, weather, fuel, engine, health, or an event that you will know when you see it.

7. When encountering turbulence, slow to Va, lower the gear, maintain level attitude, ignore altitude changes,
turn off autopilot, hold yoke as gently as possible and do not turn.

8. Regardless of density altitude all landing and takeoff speeds should be indicated. Ground speeds will be
noticeably faster and may lead to a premature rotation on takeoff and inadequate flare on landing.

9. The pilot uses high-lift devices to make a controlled steeper angle of descent for greater landing accuracy.

10. When the primary control is moved NO changes occur in the fixed trim position.

11. The pilot is responsible, the mechanic is responsible (43.11) and the owner is responsible (91.403) for the airworthiness of an aircraft.

12. An aircraft may be altered by a supplemental type certificate (STC), issuance of an airworthiness directive (AD) or by an FAA Field Approval.

13. The general rule is that prior to any flight the pilot must become familiar with all information concerning that flight.

14. Failure to lean while climbing will cause the density of the air into the engine to decrease while the fuel consumption remains constant and wasteful.

15. A clockwise turning propeller exerts a left turning force along the vertical axis and a left rolling
force along the longitudinal axis.

16. If the magneto grounding wire becomes disconnected, any movement of the propeller could cause the engine to fire and thus turn the propeller.

Question
1. If no altimeter setting is available, what should a pilot do?

2. What aircraft is not allowed to fly over densely populated areas?

3. What is the name of the most comprehensive weather briefing?

4. What briefing is least likely to be accurate?

5. What is the purpose of the abbreviated briefing?

6. What should you do when advised by a radar facility to squawk VFR?

7. What do we associate with cool, dense air moving inland from over water?

8. What is it if a pilot extends himself in maintaining visual contact with the ground?

9. What is the FAR requirement for any pilot VFR or IFR using a VASI for an approach?

10. What is the first thing to do should an engine fail just after liftoff?

11. Where is the best place to find pressure altitude?

12. What are fuel requirements for day VFR flight?

13. Where do you look for 10 o'clock traffic?

14. What must an airport have to be Class D?

15. What element of the following weight and balance will vary according to the year of the aircraft?
Unusable fuel, hydraulic fluid and undrainable oil.

16. What is required for a proper touchdown moment for a proper crosswind landing?

Answer
1. The elevation of your present location is a last resort altimeter setting.

2. Restricted category civil aircraft are not allowed over densely populated areas.

3. The standard briefing is the most comprehensive weather briefing available.

4. The outlook briefing is a projection into the distant future and likely to be wrong.

5. The abbreviated briefing is used to fill in changes as given during the standard briefing.

6. The default VFR transponder code is 1200.

7. Cool, dense air moving inland from over the water usually brings avection fog.

8. A pre-determined 'mind set' can cause a pilot to extend himself beyond his capabilities

9. Every pilot is required to remain at or above the glide slope provided by the VASI.

10. The first thing to do on engine failure is to establish best glide attitude and airspeed.

11. Pressure altitude is obtained in the cockpit by setting the altimeter to 29.92

12. Day VFR fuel must be sufficient to fly to destination and an additional 30 minutes at cruise speed.

13.From the left side forward is where you look for 10 o'clock traffic.

14. An airport that has an operating tower will be at least a Class D airport so long as the tower is open.

15. Depending on the year, the weight and balance may include full oil capacity. Check POH.

16. The flight direction of the aircraft land its longitudinal axis must be parallel to the runway for a proper crosswind landing.

Question
1. What are the primary controls?

2. What are secondary controls?

3. What are the colors and meanings of a tri-color VASI?

4. At what points will there be no compass turn errors in a standard rate 360 turn?

5. What is the proper procedure for changing transponder codes?

6. When is a situation an emergency?

7. What pilot procedures are recommended when encountering turbulence?

8. In what deceptive ways will density altitude landings and takeoffs affect ground speed?

9. How does the pilot utilize the lower stall speed and greater lift provided by flaps and slots?

10. What changes take place in the trim when the primary control is moved?

11. Name the three persons responsible for aircraft airworthiness..

12. How can an aircraft be legally altered while maintaining airworthiness?

13.

Answer
1. Primary controls are rudder, elevators and ailerons.

2. Secondary controls are flaps and trim

3. The Tri-color VASI has red for low, green for on slope, and amber for high.

4. The compass will read correctly when reading east and west during a 360 standard rate turn.

5. To change transponder codes first write the new code, read it back to ATC, turn selector to STAND-BY, put in new code numbers and put selector to altitude.

6. An emergency exists when flight safety is at risk through factors of situational awareness, weather, fuel, engine, health, or an event that you will know when you see it.

7. When encountering turbulence, slow to Va, lower the gear, maintain level attitude, ignore altitude changes, turn off autopilot, hold yoke as gently as possible and do not turn.

8. Regardless of density altitude all landing and takeoff speeds should be indicated. Ground speeds will be noticeably faster and may lead to a premature rotation on takeoff and inadequate flare on landing.