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PTS IFR Oral
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Contents
Instrument PTS Changes as of 10-01-04; … Applicant Requirements; …IFR Oral; …Aspects of the Oral; …Clearances and the PTS; …Questions and Answers; …Questions looking for Answers;  ...Compass; …Icing; …Induction Icing; …Cold Front; …Types of Airport Lighting Systems; …Other Lights; ..More Lights; ...

Instrument PTS Changes as of 10-01-04
---Use of emergency procedures using all electronic systems
---Emergency procedures using only backup or standby instruments
---Non-precision approach with backup instruments
---Proficiency in autopilot, flight management or IFR GPS
---Show aeronautical decision-making skills re: weather and performance planning.
---Show single pilot resource management skills.
---http://av-info.faa.gov (PTS at FAA-S-8081-4D)

Applicant Requirements
--An instrument applicant must have 50 hours of cross-country time meeting the 50 mile distance requirement.
--Instrument currency is determined by having six approaches, holding procedures and the interception and tracking of courses in the last six months.

IFR Oral
Study for your IFR oral and written at the same time by having copies of all the publications listed as information sources in the PTS handbook. There are about twenty specific areas of knowledge that need to be studied separately. I would list them in difficulty as follows:
--Meteorology
--Regulations
--Airspace
--IFR flight procedures
--Flight planning
--Communications
--Clearances
--Airport operations
--Physiology
--Aircraft instruments
--Aircraft systems
--Avionics
--ATC facilities
--Charts and plates
--Navigation
--Aircraft parameters

Aspects of the Oral
Examiners may approach the oral either by checking on the information that you are supposed to know, or by finding out how much you know. The ideal is the examiner who covers all that you are supposed to know and tells you that you have passed the oral. THEN, he asks you even more questions that are not common knowledge and proceeds to expand your knowledge horizon. If there is no clear division between the two sets of questions look out. Stick with what you know to be right, simple, basic, and safe.

When given an open ended question that has more than one possible answer, select what you feel to be the safest procedure to follow. At the end of your answer include the possibility of other answers being available but you have selected the one you feel most comfortable with. Watch out for hypothetical questions. Ask the examiner to show you the situation on a plate so that the application is specific.

Part of your oral exam preparation is being able to draw all the system diagrams, know how the instruments work, know by heart the emergency procedures, and what every switch on the aircraft controls. After you have mastered, or think you have mastered, the complexities of the aircraft wait a week and see if you can still draw the diagrams and answer the questions. If you don’t know, say so. Do not guess at an answer. Don’t take the test until you are sure you will pass.

Clearances and the PTS
--Knows clearance division of responsibilities and kinds.
--Copies as issued
--Determines compliance
--Interprets, gets clarification, verification and changes.
--Reads back as issued
--Standard phraseology
--Sets frequencies and codes.

A pilot must understand that the entire clearance system of checks and counter-checks is installed to minimize mistakes. The basis for all instruction related to clearances is the FARs of 61 and 91, the AIM, and AC 61-27. DPs and STARs, and IFR plates and charts give further written and diagrams of what makes a clearance.

Questions and Answers
New written test questions about convective outlook and high-level significant weather prognosis charts.
PART 91 IFR RELATED Questions
1. What is required of an IFR static system?
2. What is required of an IFR altimeter?
3. What instruments and equipment are required for IFR flight?
4. What IFR malfunction reports are required?
5. After making a full report a malfunction, what additional is required?
6. What is the easiest out from an IFR communications failure?
7. What route will be followed if communications failure occurs in IMC?
8. What altitude will be flown following communications failure in IFR conditions?
9. Under conditions of communications failure how do you determine when to arrive at your destination airport?
10. What are the required reports under IFR?
11. Only under what conditions can an IFR flight deviate from the center line of an Federal airway?
12. How are IFR flight altitudes in controlled airspace determined?
13. How are IFR altitudes determined in uncontrolled airspace? What is the exception?

Answer
1. The Static system must be checked and certified every 2 years in log books as meeting Part 43 IFR requirements 91.411

2. Altimeter must be certified IFR accurate within 75 feet up to maximum operating altitude. Altimeter must be sensitive. (Kollsman adjustment) 91.411,& 91.205 d

3. IFR flight requires all of VFR day (Make your own mnemonic) plus VFR night requires collision and position lights, electrical source, spare fuses. In addition IFR requires 2-way radio, rate-of-bank, ball, sensitive altimeter, clock, generator, attitude indicator, heading indicator. DME above 24,000 91.205. The VSI is not required.

4. Malfunction during IFR requires reporting any of the navigation, approach or communications given in . 91.187.

5. After reporting a malfunction the pilot must advice of the assistance desired from ATC. 91.187

6. The easiest out from IFR radio failure is …If VFR continue and land ASAP. 91.185 b

7. Routes to be flown after radio failure are …as assigned, expected, filed. 91.185 1

8. Altitudes to be flown after radio failure are…highest for route segments as assigned, Minimum charted, advised or expected.

9. After radio failure you must calculate the times of your IFR clearances or EFCs to meet your ETA as filed/amended.

10. Required reports are from the FARs and the AIM. The IFR pilot is required to report designated points unless under ATC radar. When under radar as requested by ATC. Unforecast weather and safety of flight factors. 91.183

11. Under VFR conditions for clearing flight path in climb and descent. Also with ATC approval.

12. Altitudes are flown as assigned by ATC with the VFR conditions on-top exception. 91.179

13. Altitudes are determined in uncontrolled airspace by the magnetic course and hemispheric rule. Even thousands westerly below 18,000, and odd thousands easterly up to Flight Level 29. Above FL 29 4000' foot spread. Exception is in holding patterns. 91.179

Question
1. What are the minimum operating altitudes for IFR operations?
2. How do you plan for climb over a point with a MCA?
3. How do you plan your climb when arriving at a route segment with a higher minimum altitude?
4. What factors determine the highest authorized DH or MDA?
5. What is the distinction between DH and MDA?
6. When may an IFR aircraft descend below the authorized DH or MDA?
7. When may an IFR aircraft not land?
8. In addition to flight visibility, and normal approach procedures there are nine visual references available. Any one of these factors will now make a landing legal. Name these nine factors in order of probable sighting. There are 5 lights, 3 markings, and 1 place
9. When must a missed approach be executed? (4 items)
10. What are the takeoff minimums for a non-commercial single engine aircraft?
11. Under what three conditions may a pilot NOT make a procedure turn?
12. When being radar vectored, when do published altitudes apply?

Answer
1. Minimum operating IFR altitudes are normally 1000' above and 4 nautical miles horizontally from highest obstacle. In mountains 2000' and 4 nm horizontally. Within 22 nm of VOR aircraft may descend below MEA (minimum enroute altitude)down to MOCA (minimum obstacle clearance altitude.) 91.177

2. Begin your climb soon enough to reach MCA (minimum crossing altitude) before reaching that point. 91.177 b

3. For a higher altitude along a route segment, begin climb after passing point beyond which the higher minimum applies 91.177 b

4. DHs or MDAs are prescribed in TERPS, prescribed for pilot, for which aircraft is equipped.91.175 b

5. The DH(decision height) is part of precision approaches. These approaches have approach slope guidance for normal landings. While it may be timed it is not a requirement. The MDA is a non-precision approach which provides only course guidance with the altitude determined by stepping down. This is of necessity a timed approach. AIM

6. You may descend below DH/MDA when a normal landing can be made. Prescribed flight visibility or better.

7. An aircraft may not land when flight visibility is less than prescribed in the TERPS. 91.175 d

8. --5. LIGHTS: REIL, threshold, TDZL, VASI, runway.
--3. MARKINGS: threshold, touchdown, runway
--1. PLACE: threshold 91.175 c 3 I
9. A missed approach must be made if below MDA,DH and MAP (missed approach point) and inability to see airport 91.175 e

10. There are no takeoff minimums for part 91 aircraft. 91.175 f

11. A procedure turn may not be made if on; 1. Radar vectors to final; 2. Timed approach from holding; 3. NoPT approach specified. 91.175 j

12. Published altitudes apply when cleared for approach and established on segment of approach. Until then you maintain assigned altitude. 91.175 I (Report your change of altitude.)

Question

26. Under what conditions may an IFR flight take place in controlled airspace?
27. In what time period and how can VORs be checked for legal IFR flight? There are 6 ways.
28. Which VOR checks have 4 degree limits? 6 degree?
29. What may be required in an IFR flight plan that is never required in a VFR flight plan?
30. 1, 2, 3 is a useful way to remember what?
31. The moment you depart the primary airport for an alternate, what does the alternate airport become?
32. What are the weather minimums for an airport with a precision approach to be filed as an alternate?
33. What are the weather minimums for an airport with a non precision approach to be filed as an alternate?
34. What are the weather requirements if your alternate has no instrument procedures?
35. What are IFR fuel requirements on a flight requiring an alternate?
36. When do these fuel requirements not apply?
37. Where is the positive control airspace?
38. What pilot qualifications are required for flight in positive control airspace?

Answer
26.IFR in controlled airspace can take place only with an IFR flight plan and ATC clearance. 91.173

27. VORs are legal to use, that have been checked within the preceding 30 days . The VORs operation must be found to be within tolerance by: any one of six ways:
1. test signal;
2. ground check point;
3. airborne checkpoint;
4. airway center line;
5. prominent ground point;
6. dual VOR check; 91.171

28. VORs must check within 4 degrees:using:
1. A dual VOR check, test signal,
2. VOR ground checkpoint;
--all other checks require within 6 degrees. 91.171

29. An alternate airport.may be required for an IFR flight. 91.169 a 2

30. No alternate is needed on an IFR flight if….
-- weather 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA is…
--forecast as ceiling 2000' and …
--visibility 3 miles. 91.169 b

31. When you fail to land at the first primary airport, the alternate becomes the primary airport. AIM?

32. 600' ceiling and 2 mile visibility. are the required minimums for an airport filed as an alternate with a precision approach procedure. 91.169 c 1 i

33. 800' ceiling and 2 mile visibility. are the required minimums for an airport filed as an alternate with a non-precision approach procedure. 91.169 c 1 ii

34.Airports without approaches require basic VFR from MEA to landing to be used as an alternate. . 91.169 c 2

35. IFR fuel requirements are…fuel enough to destination, to alternate, and 45 minutes cruise. 91.167a

36. IFR fuel requirements do not apply if the destination meet the 1, 2, 3; minimums…see answer #30 91.167 b

37. Class A is always positive control of all aircraft 18,000 up to 60,000 AIM

38. for flight in Class A airspace you must be an IFR private pilot or better 91.135 a 3

Question
1. What aircraft equipment is required for flight in positive control airspace?
2. What is IFR required equipment?
3. What altimeter setting is used in positive control airspace?
4. Does an aircraft used for instrument flight instruction need dual controls?
5. What are safety pilot requirements for simulated IFR flight?
6. How can the preflight action of a local VFR flight differ from that of a local IFR flight?
7. How is the preflight action of a VFR cross country flight similar to the requirements of a local IFR flight?
8. What is the required preflight action for any IFR flight?
9. What are the eligibility requirements for an instrument rating?
10. What must the instrument rating ground instruction include?
11. What flight experience is required for an IFR rating?
12. What is the required recency of IFR experience?

Answer
1.Required Positive Control aircraft instruments are; VFR day/night + Basic IFR instruments, radio, encoding transponder, DME above 24,000 91.135 a

2. IFR flight requires…VFR day/night + two-way radio, turn & bank indicator, ball, sensitive altimeter, clock, electric generator, attitude indicator, heading indicator. 91.205 d

3. 29.92 is used at altitudes above 18,000 by all aircraft 91.121 a 2

4. Dual controls are not required for IFR instruction. Throwover (Bonanza) is o.k. if pilot has private rating and instructor deems safe.

5. Safety pilot must be rated for aircraft, adequate vision. if flying pilot is under the hood. 91.109 b

6. A local VFR flight does not require the information required in 91.103 while a local IFR flight does. 91.103 a (All available information)

7. Cross-country VFR has the same requirements of knowledge as does a local IFR flight. 91.103

8. IFR preflight requires all available information, specifically : weather, fuel, delays, alternatives, Runway, performance, weight, wind, temperature 91.103 b

9. Hold at least a private pilot rating, English, ground instruction, flight instruction, flight experience, written test, flight test. 61.65

10. Instrument student must have logged ground instruction in:
1. FARs, AIM, ATC system and procedures
2. IFR radio navigation, VOR, ADF, ILS systems, charts, plates and DR (dead reckoning)
3. Obtain/use weather information
4. Safe and efficient aircraft operation

11. Applicant must have these minimums of experience: 125 total time with 50 x-country PIC, 40 hours simulated or actual IFR flight may have up to 20 hours simulator, at least 15 hours instruction by CFII. 61.65 b 61.65 e

12. Required currency experience is: Within the last 6 months: 6 approaches, holding and airway tracking.

Question
1. When is an alternate airport required?
2. What is the difference between a "turn coordinator" and a "turn and slip" indicator?
3. What logbook endorsements are required?
4. What is the instrument competency check?

Answer
1. Alternates
The briefer is not required to suggest an alternate if one isn't filed. the one-two-three- rule of FAR 91.169 requires an alternate: when the destination weather, one hour before and after your ETA, is forecast to be less than 2000 and three. If there are no published minimums, the weather must be at least 600/2 for a precision approach and 800/2 for a non-precision approach.

The filed alternate is the resort that you use in the event of a communications failure. The best alternate is a VFR one. Usually, after a missed approach you tell ATC where you plan to go. It does not have to be your filed alternate. What you have is at least two alternates, the real alternate and the filed alternate.

For example, on a plan from CCR to SAC METRO the filed alternate might be OAK. But if stratus fog or weather promises delays or difficulty, consider a mountain top airport such as Angwin near Calistoga. It is often above the stratus tops. Know your weather so you know your alternatives as well as your alternates.

There are a number of criteria for a real alternate: Is it a simple (familiar) approach? Are you properly equipped? Can you proceed under your own navigation (no radar)? Are other choices nearby? Are you proceeding to more favorable terrain? Do I know the terrain heights?

Know the rules applicable to a particular alternate. Is it a standard or a non standard alternate. Are there restrictions on its use as an alternate such as an operating tower, effective control zone, required altimeter setting, etc. Finally consider the availability of a a military PAR, ASR, or no gyro approach.

2. Both the turn coordinator and turn and slip indicator are the same in that they are electrically powered and have a gravity powered ball in a curved track to give the pilot a "grade" for coordination.

They are different in that the turn coordinator was developed in the 1960's as being more suited for autopilot operations. The turn coordinator reacts both to turn rate (or yaw) and roll. It is damped and gives a presentation of relative wings level condition. Turn coordinators seem to fail more often than attitude indicators.

The turn needle says only that the airplane is or is not turning.

The rate of turn for 360 degrees may be either a one or two minute bank angle. Older needles were for one minute.

3. IFR training logbook endorsements require logged instruction in:
1. Accurate control by instruments.
2. Navigation/ATC compliance by VOR and ADF
3. VOR, ADF, ILS approaches to minimums
4. Simulated/actual IFR. one 250 nm with different airport approaches of VOR, ADF, ILS
5. Emergencies: attitude, malfunction, communications, missed approaches. 61.65 c
4. When an IFR rated pilot does not meet the recency requirements within the 6 month period, or for the 6 months thereafter may not fly as PIC in IFR unless given and passing an IFR competency check.

Questions Looking for Answers
1. What are IFR rating requirements?
2. What flight requires IFR rating?
3. Is IFR rating required for IFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?
4. What privileges does IFR pilot have flying IFR in other categories and classes of aircraft?
5. What are IFR recency requirements?
6. When is an IFR competency check required?
8. What are IFR fuel requirements?
9. What pre-flight is required prior to IFR flight?
10. When is DME required?
11. Who is responsible for determining airworthiness of an aircraft?
12. What is minimum equipment for IFR flight? (Jep 1-2 FAR 91.205)
12a Never fly IFR without VFR sectionals immediately available. WAC charts do not have radio frequencies.
13. What information must be entered in the VOR long for a VOR Check?
14. When is a transponder required (FAR 91.215)
15. How often do the FAR's that the pitot-static system be checked for IFR flight?
16. What is the limitation for the use of non-aircraft electronic devices on IFR flights?
17. List the various ways and limits of checking a VOR's operation. What are the time limits and logging requirements?
18. What is a composite flight plan?
19. When is an IFR flight plan and clearance required? (FAR 91,173)
20, What does "VFR on top" mean? When is it used and what are its limitations? AIM
21. What are FDC NOTAMS and why are they important? Jepp 2-43, AIM
22. What are the standard IFR alternate minimums for precision, non-precision and "no approved..." approaches. See also question # 100.
23. What conditions must be met before ATC will approve random RNAV routes? (AIM , JAID US-315
24. What are factors the determine when direct routes are allowed? FAR 91.181
25. What are"Preferred IFR Routes" and when are they used? Where listed?
26. How can a pilot determine if the VORs will be accurate and usable at all altitudes and radials?
27. What airspeeds can and cannot be found on the airspeed indicator?
28. What effect does temperature and pressure have on altimeter indications?
29. Explain the operation of the pitot-static instruments.
31. Define: IAS, CAS, EAS, TAS
32. How does a forward C.G. affect flight characteristics? How does a rearward C.G. affect flight characteristics?
33. Describe the errors inherent in the magnetic compass and how they can be avoided and corrected.
33. Compass
Answer
Compass
The magnetic compass depends on the horizontal component of the earths' magnetic field. The directional properties of the lodestone were known to early man. The term magnet comes from the name of a region in southern Europe which was a major source for lodestone. The development of the magnet grew form a floating needle in a straw, to the needle in a cork, a pivoted needle, the pivoted card, the pivoted card in a bowl, to the use of gimbals, and finally the liquid chamber with a pivoted card.

Compasses were in use as early as the 12th century but their operation was imperfect and not fully understood. About 18090 Mathew Flinders discovered a solution to the problem of local attraction. Deviation as used in aviation. Flinder's Bars, large masses of unmagnetized iron, are universally used on ships. In 1838 Sir G. B. Airy used magnets and iron to neutralize effects of iron ships.

The initial dry card compass was developed by Lord Kelvin who determined that a cards steadiness depended on the natural period of vibration of card and needle. A light card with a heavy rim was suspended by a pyramid of threads to a central pivot point. This produced a steady card. The use of a liquid float chamber with the buoyancy of the magnet and card only slightly less than weight to reduce fraction. The liquid has a dampening effect as well.

34. Define: Pressure, density, true, absolute, and indicated altitudes.
35. Explain the use and terminology of "flight Levels.
36. What is the Coriolis Force and how does it affect winds aloft and on the surface? Jepp6-4
37. How is frost formed, and what are its effects?
38. Define what dewpoint is and why it is important.
39. What characteristics does "unstable air" have? Jepp 6-8
40. What characteristics does "stable air" have? Jepp 6-8
41. What is a temperature inversion and how does it form? Jepp 6-7
42. What is a standing lenticular cloud. Under what circumstances is it formed?
43. Describe the various types of clouds, their associated flight conditions, formations and characteristics.
44. What is wind shear and how does it occur? Jep 6-21
45. Describe the various types of ice, the characteristics of each and where formation is most likely.
45. Icing
Answer

Icing
1% G. A. accidents result of structural icing, 56% of this 1% results in fatalities. Many more but evidence destroyed by ice melting. Increase in IFR operations will raise %. Only 6% of G. A. aircraft certificated for known ice. 8% of icing accidents were in weather worse than forecast.

34% of accidents were to VFR aircraft. Icing is not just a wintertime thing. Best preventive is avoidance. Once encountered, immediately go to Alternate Air, carburetor heat, and apply Pitot heat. Be ready to declare an emergency.

Personal preflight requires that you be properly dressed for survival. You should have some awareness as to survival use of aircraft parts. Airport vicinity routes and flight plans. Ground ELT activation and emergency procedures. Always tell some one besides the ATC/FSS where you are going and that they will hear from you on arrival..

Preflight icing conditions usually consist of frost or ice droplets on the aircraft surfaces. Not at common is icing in the fuel or electronics system. No flight should be attempted with ice on any aircraft surface.

Ice may not be visible. I once preflighted an aircraft and by happenstance rubbed the surface of both wings. The first wing was dry and clean. The other wing had an invisible layer of ice because that particular wing had been protected from the wind. Paying to hangar a plane the night before is cheap insurance. Even moisture on the aircraft at takeoff can become ice at altitude. Engine preheat is a worthwhile saving of engine and battery.

Make sure that when you drain the sumps that you are getting water, An airplane in below freezing conditions can have any water in the fuel freeze. Such ice cannot be detected by sump draining. Get the fuel below freezing before draining sumps. Some aircraft have T shaped fuel lines with the bottom of the T being the drain. Water in this T has been known to freeze at altitude and expand to cut off the fuel flow. If refueling in freezing conditions, be sure to drain sumps before any water in the fuel can freeze. Cover your engine to preserve heat.

General icing forecasts are issued twice a day as part of Aviation Area Forecasts. Amendments are in SIGMETs and AIRMETs. Forecasts give areas and conditions of probable icing. PIREPs are only source of actual in-flight icing information. The Area Forecast has a brief section on icing giving freezing levels and altitudes of probable icing.

Liquid water can exist above the freezing level if the rising droplets are undisturbed. "Supercooled" water will freeze on contact. Small droplets form rime ice (like inside a refrigerator freezer), larger droplets form a glaze of clear ice. 95% of cloud droplets become ice crystals at -16o C, and 99.9% have changed to ice crystals at -25o C.

Forecasting requires guessing which cloud areas will have sufficient uplift to create supercooled droplets. This means the clouds must contain moisture above the freezing level. Because of accuracy difficulties, forecasters err on safe side and some pilots discount icing warnings.

Most common condition is IFR/VFR flight into precipitation in air temperatures that are near or below freezing. Most severe icing occurs when free air temperatures is between 0 and -10o C. Structural icing is possible as low as -40o C. Cumuliform clouds with freezing rain are worst. Any layer of air above freezing level with narrow temperature/dewpoint spread is icing zone. Ice can form from moisture in gas state in air directly into ice without going liquid. (sublimination)

Clear ice forms when large droplets impact, flow as liquid, and freeze. Clear ice is hard, heavy, and tenacious. Ice adheres to a metal surface with a force of 200# per square inch. Mechanical removal will cause destruction.

Rime ice forms from small droplets. Multiple impacts trap air giving a white appearance. Rime ice is light weight but very irregular in shape.

This irregular shape disrupts a smooth air flow and can cause a greater loss of lift than the heavier clear ice. Rime ice is brittle and more easily removed.

Miixed icing of the two types can build very rapidly. This ice has the worst of both icing characteristics, roughness and weight.

All icing, including frost, affects aircraft structure, lifting surfaces, propellers, and power plants. It has weight to raise stall speeds; it affects the flow of air affecting lift, stall speed, and climb capability; on the propeller it reduces efficiency and balance; and, it can affect the airflow into the engine intakes sufficient to cause failure.

Icing can cause intermittent or total loss of radios. Such icing can affect the pitot/static instruments. Control flutter has been caused by icing. In the winter of 1990, I experienced a gradual decrease in transmitter capability on a clear freezing cold day. I made a NORDO arrival into Concord, CA. My transmitter began to operate as I reached short final.

When encountering icing conditions make an immediate altitude change, higher if performance permits and terrain is a problem. Go for visual conditions. Rime icing is found in stratus clouds. Get to warmer altitude or colder than -50 C. Cumulus clouds produce clear ice from 0 to -10o C. down to -25 C. If you are crossing a front the warm air may be above you.

If you ever encounter icing, let ATC know. Give the kind, rate of build up and your request for options. There is a significant change in the pitch of a pilot's voice when talking to ATC about an icing encounter.

Induction Icing
Induction icing can occur either as carburetor ice or in a blocked intake. Additional problems can occur exist with the pitot and static air intake. Carburetor ice has a solution, if taken soon enough, in the application of carburetor heat. (Note: In certain sub-zero conditions the application of carburetor heat may bring the carburetor temperature into the icing range) The use of carburetor heat will, however, bypass the air intake filter on the nose of the aircraft and allow air from the engine compartment for engine operation. Pitot heat, if available, should be on at all times when flying in near freezing conditions. It is a real thrill to suddenly see the airspeed go to "zero" when you are in a dive.

When flying in snow/ice conditions likely to cause impact blockage of the exterior air intake, use carburetor heat. Most aircraft, above the trainer level, have an alternate air source. Sometimes this is concealed below the instrument panel. Consult the manual to determine location and operation. The alternate air source permits the static air to come from the cockpit area rather than through the external static air source. This will cause minor variations in those instruments using static air, altimeter, VSI, If no alternate source is available break the glass to the VSI. This makes cabin air the alternate air source.

Ice avoidance must be an integral part of IFR flying. Get out of the clouds. Request a clearance to on-top conditions. Know that icing layers in stratus clouds are thin and can be avoided by a change as little as 1000' in altitude. A flight into cumulus clouds may require immediate descent and landing due to clear ice. Don't hesitate to declare an emergency under clear ice conditions. There is no record of a violation difficulty with the FAA for declaring such an emergency. There have been, however, violations for failing to declare a timely emergency.

46. Describe the types of fronts, pressure areas and associated flight conditions.
46. Cold front
Answer
Cold Front
Line in weather depression where the cold air coming in to fill the low pressure area meets with warm air and pushes it up in a wave shaped bulge. This line is known at the cold front and always follows a warm front, which is the line in front of the bulge where the warm air has not yet been overtaken by the cold. A cold front always travels faster than a warm front, it eventually catches it up and pushes underneath the warm air to fill up the depression, a process known as occlusion.

47. What is necessary for a thunderstorm to form?. Describe in detail the creation, maturation, and decline.
Answer
Dealing with Thunder storms
Never, but never challenge a thunderstorm forecast. You cannot prepare for such an encounter. The turbulence/rain/lightning/hail is upon you so fast that you are defeated from the start. A thunderstorm is such a huge amount energy stirring up a relatively small volume of airspace to the extent that it creates its own surrounding cloud system to hide behind.

Avoidance is the only sure technique. Don't share your flight path in a cloud system where thunderstorms are forecast. Even detection equipment is for avoidance not flight through. The first avoidance method is fly in clear air so you can see and avoided storms. The problem is that this seldom works. Second method is to fly underneath and around rain shafts. This seldom works and is an uncomfortable place to be and it usually gets worse by running out of options.

The records show that hail seldom falls between 5 and 10 a.m. local. This would make this time period the safest choice for a flying period in a region known to produce thunderstorms. ATC radar is not a weather tool. Don't rely on ATC radar for thunderstorm information.

48. Describe the various types of fog, creation, characteristics and flight conditions. Jepp 6-26
49. Define "ceiling" AIM
50. Define levels of turbulence and associated flight conditions. Jep 6-24
51. When are SIGMETs and AIRMETs broadcast over VORs? Define. Jepp 6-46
52. Describe what a standard sea level day is. What is the standard temperature lapse rate?
53. Describe an ATIS system. When are sky and visibility not reported?
54. Describe in detail
What is shown, valid periods, altitudes, importance/use, abbreviations Jepp l6-1+
Surface Analysis Chart
Weather Depiction Chart
Significant Weather Prognostic Chart
Radar Summary Chart
Winds/temperature Aloft Chart
Area Forecast
Terminal Forecast
Winds/Temperature Aloft forecast
PIREP
Surface Aviation Weather Report
SIGMET
AIRMET
Constant Pressure Chart
Convective Outlook

55. What are the responsibilities of the PIC on an IFR flight? Jepp 2-11
56. When may a pilot deviate from an FAR and what must be done afterwards?
57. What time sequence should be used for flight plan filing and receiving a clearance prior to departure.
58. What are the takeoff minimums for aircraft operating under Part 91. Jepp 3-27
59. List aircraft speed rules Jepp 5-18
60 Describe how to determine "foot per mile gradient".
61. What is an abbreviated clearance? What is an amended clearance? Jepp 2-12
62. What is clearance delivery and when is it used? Jep 2-7
63. What does "Clearance on Request" mean?
64. What is a Category II hold line and when should it be used?
65. What does"Resume Own Navigation" mean and when is it used?
66. List the transponder codes for VFR, Emergency, radio failure, hijack.
67 What is the procedure for use of transponder after two-way communications failure.
68. If you do not want to use a SID or STAR, what should you do on your flight plan. Will it make a difference??
69. Describe and draw various types of airport and approach lighting systems. Jepp 2-25 CHAPTER 2 OF AIM and FAR 91.175
Answer
Part 91 gets to estimate visibilities, other Parts have to use ATC visibilities. Approach lighting systems are designed to help in estimating visibilities. The horizontal spread of the lights give a visual wings-level cue BUT there is no elevation cue.
An ALS must 'earn credit' for lower approach minimums.
ALS types are given on the plate.
If you learn the light pattern for a given approach you will know what to look for at minimums.

Types of Airport Lighting Systems
ALS Variations: Be able to draw.
--ALSF-1 100' spaced barrettes (light bars)of 5 white lights for 2400 to 3000' on a precision approach. 21 lights at 1000' (decision) barrette. Usually military and Cat 1 airports. Red terminating bar allows descent below DH. Threshold lights are green. Flashing sequenced lights (rabbit) stop at 100' decision bar. Exists where (F) exists.

--ALSF-2 Same as ALSF-1 + 21 light 500' bar and 3 red light side bars for 1000'. Red lights must be seen for descent to 100' ATDZ (Above touch down zone).

--SALS - Short approach lighting system same as last 1500' of ALSF-1 system. SSALS means simplified short approach lighting system. The addition of the (F) at the end means with flashing sequence lights. With the SSALS bars are 200' apart out to 1400' and RAIL out to 3000. High intensities available. Used on non-precision approaches

--MALS - Medium intensity approach lighting system is on newer Cat 1. Same as SSALS except only three strobes on approach. Medium and high intensity.

Other Lights:
--REIL - Runway end identifier lights
Strobe lights each side of threshold to make threshold stand out
1. From surrounding lights
2. In no contrast terrain.
3. In reduced visibility.
--RAIL - Runway alignment indicator lights
Considered as visual guide. NO credit to lower minimums unless as part of ODALS - omni-directional approach lighting system will earn 1/4 visibility credit. (rare)

--ODALS has flashing strobes at threshold and 5 strobes spaced every 300' toward the approach. No intensity control.

Dim bulb compared to ALSF-2

--HIRL, MIRL, LIRL - Runway edge lights
Variable intensity white lights except, Amber last 2000' of instrument runways. End lights are red or green depending on direction.

--TDZL - Touchdown zone (recessed) lighting
Two rows of light bars along sides of the runway centerline. Extends in 100' spaces for 3000' or half way.

--RCLS - Runway centerline (recessed)lighting
Along with runway centerline lights are on some precision runways. Every 50' of center line to within 75' of ends.

More Lights
Runway Remaining Lighting
Final 3000' of which 2000 are alternating red/white and last 1000' are red.
Some runways have taxiway turn off lights.
Taxiway edge lights are blue
Taxiway center lights are green
Approach lights give distance information if you know what to look for.
At DH or middle marker if you see the decision bar (21 lights) you know that it is 3000' from the threshold and that
visibility is at least 2000'
If you can see just four more lights beyond the decision bar you have 2400' the required visibility. This is a valid
method of determining and estimating visibility.
Before descent below DH or MDA
Have the approach lights in sight
Additional descent only if terminating (red) bars are visible. (Applies only to ALSF-1 & 2)
At smaller airports remember that MALS and SSALS bars are 200' apart.
Don't descend until across threshold. The GREEN lights.

Decision bar crossing altitude should be about 100' above TDZE.
Add threshold crossing altitude to TDZE to get GREEN light crossing altitude.

--PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator
Since 1984. Usually single row of four lights to left of runway. If two inner lights are white and the two outer lights are red you are on the proper glide path. Normally 3 degree slope. Can be checked remotely. White increase if above slope-All white at 3.5 degrees. Red increases if below slope - All red at 2.5 degrees. Tells pilot if high or low and flight path trend.
Visible 5 miles day 20 miles at night. 4 lights in horizontal row on left side of runway. 4 white if high, 2 white/2red if on 3 degree path, 4 red if low.

--VASI
Since 1960's last installation 1984 when replaced by PAPI. VASI tells pilot if too high or low but not trend. Two and three bar installations with from two to sixteen lights. Two bar for General Aviation and single glide path. Three bar for General Aviation and Jumbos gives two glide paths. Photocell controlled intensity of 200-watt bulbs. May be pilot controlled. Usually 3 degree glide path slope with 2 minutes of arc error. Bars white if high. Bars red if low. Red over white you're all right. Red is farther bar; white is near bar. Beginning 50' from edge of runway spaced 30' apart. Lateral guidance is runway centerline. 5 mile visibility on clear day. 20 miles on clear night. Obstruction clearance within 10 degrees of runway centerline

70. What does the airport rotating beacon on during the day mean?
71. Draw a runway this is served by a precision instrument approach. Label the markings. Do the same for a non-
precision runway. Jepp 2-21
72. What are the lost communications procedures? FAR 91.127 Jepp 7-18+
73. What are the hemispherical rules for VFR flight. What are the hemispherical rules for IFR flight. How do these rules apply to ATC instructions?
74. What is "Flight Watch and how do you use it?
75. What are the rules for use of oxygen? Far 91.211
76. What are VFR weather minimum for controlled and uncontrolled airspace at all altitudes and times?
77. What equipment is required to operate in a TCA. FAR 91.215
78. Draw the types of holding pattern entries.
79. What should the pilot do if ATC asks to verify altitude as being 7000' and the pilot is at 6000'
80. How can a pilot tell if a VOR is out for maintenance
81. When is a clearance readback required? Jep 2-017
82. Describe vertigo and hypoxia AIM, Jepp 9-21
83. Describe conditions and distinctions of visual and contact approach.
84. What is the function of ATC during IFR operations
85. How are approach categories determined?
86. When are IFR flight plans automatically closed?
87. What equipment loss must be reported to ATC?
88. What is a tricolor VASI? Jepp 2-27
Answer
Tricolor visual approach slop indicators consist of a single light projection via lenses three colors. Above the glide
path, you see amber; on the glide path you see green and below the glide path you see red.
89. What is the correct sequence when recovering from an unusual attitude?
90. What are the minimum qualifications for a safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?
91. How is wake turbulence produced and avoided? Jepp 6-25
92. What equipment is required for IFR flight?
93. What are the standard FSS frequencies?
94. What is a cruise clearance? AIM, Jepp 2-13
95. What can be substituted for an outer marker and middle marker FAR 91.175(k)
96. What are the maximum speeds in a holding pattern and how does the pattern size change with speed and altitude?
97. Where are the 14 compulsory reporting points? When might most of them not be required?
98. What is the sequence of items used when reporting a compulsory reporting point?
99. What is a Void Clearance" and when would it be used?
100. Define and state guarantee of each: MEA,MOCA, MRA, MCA, MAA
101. Describe a PAR, ASR and No Gyro approach. Jepp 7-21, AIM
102. Describe operation, limitations, and characteristics of:
VOR, NDB, ILS, DME, Marker Beacon, transponder, LDA, SDF,
103. Define:
--Circle to land,
--Cleared as filed,
--Cleared for approach,
--Decision height,
--EFC, IAF, FAF, HAA, Hat, MSA, TCH,
--Option approach,
--Radar contact,
--Radar service terminated,
--TDZE, VDP

104. List all V speeds for you aircraft
105 Know all symbols on: approach charts, STAR, DP, Enroute charts
106. Under what circumstances would FL 200 be lowest usable flight level? FAR 91.121
107. While holding at the clearance limit following two-way radio communications failure, when should you leave your clearance limit if that limit is not a fix from which an approach beings? FAR 91.185(c)(3)(ii) Jepp 7-20
108. What is the format of a report to ATC for equipment malfunctions? FAR 91.187
109. Define "runway environment"? FAR 91.175 (3) i-x)
110. What is the width of a localizer at the runway threshold? AIM
111. The ILS glide slope operates in the UHF band while the localizer receiver operates in the VHF band. How are we able to receive the UHF glideslope with a VHF localizer AIM 12 (h)
112. The glide slope is adjusted so that the aircraft's glide slope antenna arrives at the runway threshold at approximately what altitude? AIM 12(d)(7)
113. You're holding a 10-degree; inbound correction angle on the inbound leg of a holding pattern. Why do you use a 20-degree on the outbound leg rather than 10-degree; ? AIM
114. After starting the missed approach after reaching the MAP, what choices does the a pilot have remaining.
115. List the precision approaches
116. List the non-precision approaches.
117. When may a pilot legally fly special-VFR at night? AIM
118. When ATC issues the clearance "at pilots discretion" in association with an altitude, what can the pilot do and not do? AIM
119. In order to avoid delays, how long in advance should a pilot file an IFR flight plan? AIM
120. When would an IFR flight plan be required while operating in VMC?
Answer
IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions
Meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling that are less than
minima specified for visual meteorological conditions...
VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions
Meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling equal to or better
than specified minima for IMC.

121. Upon reaching the DH on an ILS approach and having only the approach lighting system in sight but NOT the red terminating bars or red side bars, the pilot may descend to what altitude? FAR 91.175(c)(3)
122. How much more sensitive is a localizer than a VOR?
123. What is the reliable range of a localizer?
124. What are the Marker Beacon Colors, sounds, distances from MAP, and normal altitudes on the glide slope? AIM 12, Jepp 4-4
125. What are the three components of the ILS system?
126. What are the five outer Marker substitutes??
127. What are the VOR ranges Jepp l-37
128. What is the LOM range? Jep 4-6
129. What is required for an IFR flight into controlled airspace?
130. What is the difference between a straight in and a full approach?
131. What can be logged as IFR time?
Answer
1. Time in IFR conditions as manipulator of the controls.
2. Simulated IFR with safety pilot.
3. Flight simulator time with CFI.

132. What are the VOR test requirements?
Answer
A VOR must be checked within 30 days of IFR flight. A test done with a VOT or between two VORs or at a
ground or inflight known VOR checkpoint. The place of the test, date and time, radial to and from and amount of
error for each.

134. What are the VOT requirements?
Answer
The VOT check used for the VOR requires that both the to and from be checked at 360 and 180 on the OBS
and that the needle be within 4-degrees; of center.

135. If the ELT is not operating or out of the aircraft, can an IFR flight be made? If yes, explain.

136. What are the altitude requirements for flying IFR when not on a Victor airway?
Answer
Non-mountain requires 1000’ above and 4000’ to the side of highest obstacle. Mountains require 2000’s and
4000’
137. What is the minimum weather checklist when obtaining weather for an IFR flight?
138. What is required information for a position report?
Answer
--Give your present position,
--Time and altitude,
--The name and ETA for your next checkpoint,
--The name only of the next checkpoint.

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