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Questions and Answers
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Contents
Ready for the Checkride; ..22-Complex
Questions You Should Be Able to Explain Simply for the Checkride; ...9-Checkride
Questions/Answers1; ...8-Questions/Answers2;
...9-Question/Answer3; ...11-Questions/Answers4;
.
11-Questions/Answers5; ...4-Questions/Answers6;
.....4-Question/Answers7; ...2-Questions/Answers8;
..2Question/Answers9; ...3-Questions/answers10;
..5-Questions/Answers11; ...1-Question/Answer12;
...Class D Airspace; ...1-Question/Answers13;
...4-Questions/Answers14; ...4Questions/Answers15;
...7-Questions/Answers16; 17-Questions/Answers17;
...16-Questions/Answers18; ...16-Questions
Answers19; ...15-Questions/Answers20; ....17-Questions/Answers21;
...25-Questions/Answers22; ...16-Questions/answers23;
...9-Questions/Answers24; ...42-Unanswered
Questions25; ...
Ready for the Checkride:
--Be prepared to a level of competent control, conscientious
planning, and safety.
--No need know every answer in every item on flying you've ever
read.
--No need to be an expert in your technical knowledge...
--No need to be flying to the level of an ATP...
--The examiners are concerned with your ability to exercise good
judgment, and ability to fly safely. Perfection is not a requirement.
--If you make a mistake, suggest that you start over since you
can do better.
--Examiners are willing to give a second chance.
--If you make a poor approach to a landing, Advise the examiner
as to why you are dissatisfied and make an early go-around. This
shows good judgment, not poor flying.
--Try to relax. Use the flight as an opportunity to demonstrate
how well you have been trained.
--The worst that is going to happen is failing the checkride.
The failure is more likely to save your life than not.
--Don't worry about failing; concentrate on your flying. Your
instructor signed you off because he believed you could pass.
--The retest will be to check those areas that you had difficulty
with.
--Make sure you know where to find the answers. Use the AIM/FAR,
POH, weight and balance documents, E6B, sectional, A/FD or weather
briefing material.
--Have a book selection available. If you can't answer a question,
ask if you can use your materials to find the answer.
--Log on to DUATS for a weather briefing every day before the
test. Bring the briefing and be able to read it. Bring a copy
of the weight and balance with you.
--Be prepared to say "I can find that in the AIM."
or "That's in the POH. Let's look in the FARs.
--A simulated emergency does not give you the right to deviate
from the FAR's; only a real emergency does that.
--As the pilot in command during your test you are the responsible
party for the safety of the flight. If the DE suggests anything
you feel to be less than safe, make an alternate suggestion that
you feel more appropriate.
--Keep your airspeed below Va. Advise the DE of your altitude
and heading on entry.
--Hold your altitude and divide your attention in and out of
the airplane.
--Keep flight coordinated and at altitude. Fly at cruise power
in ground reference so you can reduce the hazard of a low speed
low altitude stall. Losing altitude is most likely due to making
a steeper bank. If you lose altitude in a bank, reduce the bank
angle before applying pitch change. Rolling out on headings is
required to meet PTS criteria.
--Study the engine and airframe logbooks before the test post-it
inspections.
--"Clear!"; Do the brake check; and check engine instruments
at start, runup, flight configuration changes and flight checkpoints.
--If the landing doesn't feel right, go around.
--There is no way to make every approach lead to a good landing.
--Fly the airplane first, talk is a distant second.
--Violating a PTS tolerance is not the end of the test. If you
are making a correction you may still perform acceptably.
--Coordination is expected in every maneuver but especially during
a takeoff, stalls and steep turns.
--Know the three types of NOTAMs. Get them for your flight.
Complex Questions
You Should Be Able to Explain Simply
for the Checkride
1. What makes an airplane stall?
2. What are flaps for?
3. Why does a plane turn when banked?
4. Why do we lean the mixture?
5. What is the rudder for?
6. What is density altitude?
7. How does density altitude affect the airplane?
8. How does density altitude affect performance?
9. How are flight controls used for taxiing?
10. Why do we takeoff and land at Vref?
11. What is ground effect?
12. What determines if a crosswind landing is possible?
13. Why is a constant approach speed helpful?
14. What is the difference between TC and TH?
15. How many brief statements can you make about the wind?
16. How do we use MC?
17. How is the initial call-up to Approach Control different
from FSSs?
18. What special use has the frequency: 122.0, 122.2, 122.1,
122.95, 122.9, 122.75
19. What does an amber beacon at an airport mean? (Obsolete and being replaced
by the letters RT on sectional charts.
20. How many differences are there in fuel?
21. How many different ways can you use to find an unknown frequency?
22. How many different ways can you use to determine runway in
use?
Answers:
1. Angle of Attack
2. Angle of descent
3. Change in lift vectors
4. Weight of air/fuel mix for performance
5. Keeps tail behind nose
6. Aircraft performance altitude
7. Power, lift, thrust
8. Faster ground speeds, lower climb rate
9. Clime into; dive away
10. Weight determines Vso for shortest performance
11. 1/2 wingspan AGL region of low drag=best performance
12. Keeping nose straight
13. Improves judgment
14. WCA (Wind correction angle)
15. Never as forecast
16. Sets flight altitudes above 3000' AGL
17. Identification and "over", vs identification and
"frequency"
18. Flight watch, FSS universal, FSS receive only; all controlled
airports UNICOM; airports w/unlisted freq.air to air
19. Right traffic (Amber light on wind sock pole is being replaced by the
letters RT on sectionals.
20. Octane, color, smell, feel, residue
21. too many; make your own list
22. too many; make your own list
Questions and Answers
Checkride
questions/answers1
1. What must be in the pilots possession before flight?
2. What entries must be in a pilot's log book before he can legally
carry passengers?
3. What are required papers for an aircraft?
4. What must preflight items include?
5. Name four specific use transponder codes.
6. Name four specific oxygen use levels.
7. Where is an altitude encoder required?
8. Name maximum speeds required by FAR's.
9. Discuss altitude requirements required by FAR's such as: minimum
safe, requirements for inhabited areas, populated stadiums, one
person, cloud clearances/altitudes
Answers
1. A pilot must have in his possession for flight a pilot license
that is good until revoked and current medical good 6-months,
1-year, 2-years. And three by class depending on age. (radio
not required in U. S.)
2. A pilot's logbook must have a current flight review or new
rating acquired, verified takeoffs/landings under day/night conditions
in last 90 days, Checkout and endorsements in type, high altitude,
complex aircraft, and high performance required.
3. An aircraft must have visible in the cockpit its airworthiness,
registration, (radio station for foreign flight), manual or placards
of limitations. Weight and balance, limitation placards, ELT
battery life limit placard must be available in aircraft. The
engine-log, aircraft log and ELT battery installation dated/signed
not required aboard but must be available.
4. A preflight must have all available information related to;
weather; aircraft performance; fuel to destination plus 30 min.
day, 45 min. night; destination runway lengths; alternatives.
Sectional not specifically mentioned.
A current Airport/Facilities directory is highly recommended.
5. Basic transponder codes are: 1200 VFR; 7700 emergency; 7600
radio emergency; and 7500 hijack.
6. Below 12500 none; 12500 to 14000 1/2 hour none; 14000 to 15000
pilot; above 15000 everybody.
7. A Mode C altitude transponder altitude encoder is required
above 10,000', within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airport,
and inside, above, or below the footprint of Class C airspace.
8. Maximum speeds for aircraft is set at 250-kts below 10,000;
200 kts below class B, C or in Class D airspace.
9. Minimum safe is being able to land no damage/injury; 1000
above 2000 lateral stadiums and congested areas; 500' clear of
people in sparse areas; no limit if intention to land; local
jurisdictions set limits at airports; cloud clearance require
clear of clouds below 700'/1200' Class G; 1000 above, 500 below
and 2000 lateral clearance required below 10,000', 1000' above/below
and 1-mile lateral clearance required above 10,000'; 2500 AGL
above Class Delta; no flight above /below Class Bravo without
clearance; 12500,14000,15000 oxygen requirements; above 10,000'
transponder is required ; 18,000 IFR. DME required above 24,000'.
Checkride Questions/Answers2
1. Discuss existence, function, and requirements of Class Delta
Airspace
2.How is traffic direction determined at differing airports?
3. What is the hemispheric rule and when does it not apply?
4. How is the Magnetic Course used in the real world of flying?
5. How is Magnetic Course obtained?
6. What does the isogonic line show?
7. Identify the ATC light signals.
8. When weather minimums go below VFR minimums of three mile
visibility or a ceiling of less than 1000' special VFR (SVFR)
clearances are required in Classes D and C airports. What does
this clearance do?
Answers
1. Class Delta airspace exists when the tower is open, communications
out and prior to departure, controls traffic but not separation.
Class Delta limits airspace to one aircraft at a time when weather
is below VFR minimums to guarantee IFR aircraft separation. The
Class Delta is of varied diameter and shape. Size is standard
at 4.1-nautical miles from airport center. Class Delta can be
as small as 3.1 nautical miles (CCR).
2. Standard traffic is left turns unless tower clearances, instructions,
segmented circle; wind indicators; or amber light on windsock
specify right traffic.
3. All aircraft above the ground by more than 3000' must comply
with the hemispheric rule when in level flight. Easterly magnetic
courses are ate odd-thousands + 500' and westerly courses are
at even-thousands + 500' Within 3000' of the ground the hemispheric
rule does not apply..
4. Magnetic course determines if the hemispheric rule applies
above 3000' AGL.
5. The magnetic course is found by taking the + angular difference
between the true-north pole lines of a chart and the direction
a compass points to as magnetic north pole. The amount is indicated
on magenta isogonic lines the run as - - - - diagonally across
the chart in about 1-foot intervals. Somewhere along the line
there will be a degree or degree-30-minute number giving the
variation. The letter E for east means that the difference is
subtracted and the letter W for west means to add this number
to the True Course direction. This angle can be determined by
comparing the two 'norths' of a VOR compass rose.
6. The angular difference between the north pole and magnetic
north.
7. See chart in AIM. Flashing white no meaning in air, flashing
red on ground clear runway.
8. The Classes B, C and D areas are shown as --- , magenta, or
blue on the sectional. San Francisco does not allow fixed wing
SVFR. ATC can issue a SVFR clearance only at a pilot's request.
The Clearance specifies
certain directions, altitudes, distances and restrictions for
both flying and reporting. All of this clearance should be written
down and read back to ATC. The restrictions are as to altitude,
visibility and cloud clearance.
Maintaining SVFR requires at least one-mile visibility and clear
of clouds.
Checkride Questions/Answers3
1. How does the nose gear of a Cessna and a Piper differ?
2. Under what circumstance might full pressure on a Piper (fully
operational) brake prove ineffective?
3. How high is an FAA tree?
4. How does a Warning Area differ from those in a Restricted
area?
5. How do the Sectional representation of Federal and State Game
Reserves differ in their presentation?
6. Why is there a yellow line down the middle of taxiways?
7. How can flying direct to a VOR kill you?
8.What is the significance of flights over 50 nautical miles?
9.What is the difference between true course and true heading?
Answer
1. The Cessna nose gear is steerable by means of the rudder pedals
through springs. This is only when the strut is depressed. In
flight, the Cessna nose gear hangs down and aligns with the relative
wind. This means the wheel is aligned with the direction of travel
(runway) in a crosswind landing even in a cross-control condition.
The Piper nose gear is directly linked to the rudder and rudder
pedals both in air and on the ground. In a crosswind landing
the cross-control approach with the Piper results in the nose
wheel being at an angle to the runway. Any Piper crosswind landing
must be initially on one main wheel only. The nose wheel must
be straightened before making ground contact.
2. The Piper has a cabin support bar across the cockpit just
above the rudder pedals. Inadvertent placement of the toes above
the pedal toe-stops can bring the feet into contact with this
bar. In this situation neither steering or braking is possible.(Hand
brake still works)
3.The FAA obstacle clearance altitude used for short-field takeoffs
is 50'. After liftoff and climb at Vx a C-150 can reach 50' by
the time you count to ten.
4. The only difference is that Warning Areas exist over international
waters that cannot be restricted from international travel. The
hazards of each are identical.
5. Federal minimum altitudes are 2000' AGL. This is shown in
a presentation on the margin of the sectional. State's minimums
are 2000' AGL. This is shown near each reserve in magenta. Some
of these altitudes are
mandatory while others are recommended. Violations can cost the
value of a $50,000 airplane. Watch out.
6. The yellow centerline is a suggestion that an aircraft should
taxi in the middle of the taxiway. You have a
form of guarantee that you will not hit anything while on the
yellow line.
7. CCR VOR as an example of this hazard to your survival. It
can be received from behind Mt. Diablo in such a manner as to
fly the unaware aircraft into the mountain.
8. Cross-country flights over 50 miles are logged as cross-country
if landing is made when required for ratings. Otherwise, log
flights to airports regardless of distance as cross-country.
50 of over 50 mile flight hours required to take IFR practical
test after getting private rating. When you fly go over 50 miles
every chance you can until you get your raitings.
9. Wind correction angle
Checkride Questions/Answers4
1. Explain how aircraft performance differs between Vx and Vy.
2. When can a private pilot accept money from passengers?
3. Explain the function of the magenta/blue tint areas of the
sectional.
4. Where can you find an aircraft's true airspeed?
5. What limitation is placed on night SVFR?
6. What is the meaning of an airport beacon operating in the
daytime?
7. Define the following and give the actual airspeeds for the
aircraft used: Vso, Vx, Vy, Va, Vne
8. Where can you find pressure altitude?
9. What are basic VFR minimums within 1200' of the surface in
uncontrolled airspace? Day vs night
10. What is the VFR minimum in Class D airspace? How do you tell
if not VFR?
11. What is the discrete use of the following frequencies? 121.5;
122,0; 122.2, 126.2 122.95
Answers
1. Vx clears an obstacle in shorter distance but does not gain
as much height in time. Vy gains most altitude over given time.
2. Only to share expenses.
3. These transition areas become effective when weather is below
VFR minimums. If unable to maintain 1000' above, 500' below or
3 mile visibility, the non-IFR flight is required to descend
to within 700' AGL/magenta areas or 1200' AGL blue (all other)
areas and maintain 1-mile clear of clouds. This assures IFR flights
safe clearances. (A special transition area exists northwest
of Ukiah with set altitudes from 7500 to 9500 which avoids the
up and down terrain avoidance required by the 700/1200 foot transition
areas.
4. You find true airspeed (TAS) in the aircraft flight manual
(AFM) or the Pilots Operating Handbook (POH)
5. The pilot must be IFR current in IFR airplane. CCR tower says
that night SVFR would be permitted in the Class Delta airspace
if you could enter or leave the airspace in required night VFR
conditions.
6. An airport rotating beacon operating in day time indicates
that the weather below VFR minimums and a, SVFR clearance is
required for VFR aircraft.
7.Vso is Minimum safe operating speed. Vx is best angle of climb
speed. Vy is best rate of climb speed.
Vne is redline or never exceed speed..
8. Pressure altitude is found when you set the altimeter to 29.92
9. Basic day VFR minimums are 1-mile clear of clouds in day transition
areas; otherwise it is 3 mile 500/1000,2000 day or night t unless
in the pattern 1/2 mile of airport.
10. Class D VFR minimums are 1000 ceiling, 3 mile visibility,
as given by ATIS. Below minimums during the day are shown by
the rotating beacon..
11. Radio frequencies for: Emergency is 121.5; Flight Watch is
122.0; Universal FSS frequency is 122.2; Military Towers 126.2,
Controlled Airport Unicom is 122.95.
Checkride Question/Answers5
1. What can we do to avoid vertigo?
2. What is required if you fail a written test for first time?
3. What is the definition of a complex aircraft?
4. How can the differences between adding power to an automobile
and an airplane get you into trouble?
5. Why does the trim seem to work backwards?
6. What is meant by the stabilized approach?
7. What aspect of your flight training and technique will "break
down" during the flight test, if not part of your usual
practice?
8. How should you use excess airspeed in the event of an engine
failure emergency?
9. How do high density altitudes change your indicated approach
speed for landings?
10. How do you determine the dimensions and limitations of a
prohibited, restricted, or alert area.
11. What is basic VFR minimums above/below 10,000' in controlled
airspace?
Answer
1. Vertigo sensations cannot be prevented; they can be ignored.
You don't appreciate the trained will power required to ignore
vertigo until you have had it.
2. No wait, get a new instructor sign-off to take test.
3. Constant speed propeller, flaps retractable gear.
4. Power alone will decrease an aircraft's airspeed by inducing
a climb.
5. Raising the wheel lowers the nose.
6. Hands-off flight approach on glide path and at airspeed.
7. Use of a checklist is the first thing you lose under stress.
8. In an engine failure use any excess airspeed to gain altitude
a hundred feed can make a 'world' of difference.
9. IAS should be the same for every landing. Apparent ground
speeds can vary according to wind and density altitude. Flare
is better made closer to the ground the higher the density altitude
due to decreased ground effect.
10. Refer to the sectional upper margin; call a Flight Service
Station. Refer to Airport/Facilities Directory.
11. Cloud clearance requires above ten-thousand feet is 1000
above 1000 below 1 mile lateral with 5-mile visibility; Basic
cloud clearance below 10,000' is 1000 above 500 below 2000 lateral
with-3 mile visibility;
Checkride
Question/Answers6
1. No person may pilot an aircraft, with or without passengers,
unless his logbook contains an endorsement that he has satisfactorily
passed a flight review within the past _________ months. FAR
61.56(c)
2. Requirements for pilot carrying passengers FAR 61.57
Daytime_______ Nighttime _______
3. What documents must be on board the aircraft at all times.
FAR 91.203, and 91.9 and Federal Communications Commission.
4. Discuss use of radar services for AIM 4-16
Answer
1. 61.56 (c)... Since the beginning of the 24th calendar month
before the month in which that pilot acts a pilot in command.
2. 61.57 (c) General experience. No person may act as pilot in
command of an aircraft carrying passengers, ...unless within
the preceding 90 days, he has made three takeoffs and three landings
as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft
of the same category and class.... If the aircraft is a tailwheel
airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop in
a tailwheel airplane.
61.57 (d) Night experience. No person may act as pilot in command
of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning
1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise unless,
within the preceding 90 days, he has made at least three takeoffs
and three landings to a full stop during that period in the category
and class of aircraft to be used.
3. 91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
(a) ...no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within
it the following:
(1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate.
(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its
owner or, for operation within the United States, the second
duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application
as provided for in Sec 47.31(b)
(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness
certificate required by paragraph (a) of the section... is displayed
at the cabin or in cockpit entrance so that it is legible to
passengers or crew.
91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements
(a) ...no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying
with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane
Flight Manual, markings, and placards...
(b) No person may operate a U. S. -registered civil aircraft
-
(1) For which an Airplane Flight Manual is required by Sec. 21.5
of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a
current approved Airplane Flight Manual...
(2) For which an Airplane Flight Manual is not requires by Sec.
21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft
a current approved Airplane flight Manual, approved manual material,
markings and placards, or any combination thereof.
(c) No person may operate a U. S. -registered civil aircraft
unless that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45
of this chapter.
RADIO The Federal Communications Commission must issue a radio
station license specific to the aircraft or organization (group
license). A copy of that license is required to be aboard the
aircraft at all times. There is no longer a required radio license
for the pilot in the United States. Such a license may be required
in countries outside the U. S.
4. AIM 4-16 TERMINAL RADAR PROGRAMS FOR VFR AIRCRAFT MUST BE
READ IN ENTIRETY
Checkride
Question/Answers7
1. What documents must be in the possession of the pilot? 61.3
2. Oxygen requirements for flight above 12500, 14000, 15000.
FAR 91.211
3. What are the aircraft equipment and pilot experience requirements
for flight in Class B airspace? FAR 91.131
4. What are the common frequencies for contacting the FSS? Sectional
Answer
1. 61.3 Requirement for certificates, rating, and authorizations.
(a) Pilot certificate. No person may act as pilot in command
...of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he has
in his personal possession a current pilot certificate issued
to him under this part.
(c) Medical certificate. ...no person may act as pilot in command
... under a certificate issued to him under this part unless
he has in his personal possession an appropriate current medical
certificate issued under Part 67 of this chapter.
2. 91.21 Supplemental oxygen
(a) General.
(1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500' MSL up to and including
14,000 (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided
with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight
at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration.
(2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000' (MSL) unless the
requires minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental
oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
(3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000' (MSL) unless each
occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
3. 91.131 Class Bravo airspace
(a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within
a terminal control area designated in part 71 of this chapter
except in compliance with the following rules:
(b) Pilot requirements.
(1) No person may takeoff or land a civil aircraft at an airport
within a terminal control area or operate a civil aircraft within
a terminal control area unless:
(i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate;
or
(ii) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met
the requirements of Sec. 61.95 (Instruction and 90 day sign-off
for operation in but not landing at SFO)
(c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an
aircraft within a terminal control area unless that aircraft
is equipped with
(1) For IFR operations. An operative VOR or TACAN receiver; and
(2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of
communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies
(d) Transponder requirement. No person may operate an aircraft
in Class B airspace unless the aircraft is equipped with the
operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment
specified.
4. 122.2 is a (nearly) universal frequency if a more discrete
frequency is unknown. The heavy lined boxes at FSS locations
have FSS Frequencies. The Duplex system is being phased out except
at the most remote VORs.
Checkride
Question/Answers8
1. Define the following: Squawk, Squawk VFR and Ident, Stop Squawk,
Squawk alt, Stop squawk altitude AIM Chapter 4
2. When would a code other than 1200 be used? AIM Chapter 4
Answers
1. RADAR BEACON PHRASEOLOGY
Air traffic controllers, both civil and military, will use the
following phraseology when referring to operation of the Air
Traffic Control Radar Beacon System. Instructions by ATC refer
only to Mode A/3 or Mode C operation and do not affect the operation
of the transponder on other modes.
1. SQUAWK (number) --Operate radar beacon
transponder on designated code in Mode A/3
2. IDENT -- Engage the "IDENT"
feature of the transponder.
3. SQUAWK (number) and IDENT
-- Operate transponder on specified code in Mode A/3 and engage
the "IDENT" feature.
4. SQUAWK STANDBY -- Switch transponder
to standby position
5. SQUAWK LOW/NORMAL -- Operate transponder
on low or normal sensitivity as specified. Transponder is operated
in "NORMAL" position unless
ATC specifies "LOW", ("ON" is used instead
of "NORMAL" as a master control label on some types
of transponders.)
6. SQUAWK ALTITUDE --Activate MODE
C with automatic altitude reporting.
7. STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK --Turn off altitude
reporting switch and continue transmitting MODE C framing pulses.
If your equipment does not have this capability, turn off MODE C.
8. STOP SQUAWK (mode in use) --Switch
off specified mode.
9. STOP SQUAWK --Switch off transponder
10. SQUAWK MADAY -- Operate transponder
in the emergency position (Mode A Code 7700 for the civil transponder.
11. SQUAWK VFR --Operate radar beacon
transponder on code 1200 in the MODE A/3, or other appropriate
VFR code.
AIM 6-11; 6-31; Assigned by ATC
2. TRANSPONDER EMERGENCY OPERATION AIM Chapter
6 Section 2
a. When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot
of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder, who desires
to alert a ground radar facility, should squawk Mode 3/A, Code
7700/emergency and MODE C altitude reporting and then immediately
establish communications with the ATC facility.
b. Radar facilities are equipped so that Code 7700 normally triggers
an alarm or special indicator at all control positions. Pilots
should understand that they might not be within a radar coverage
area. Therefore, they should continue squawking Code 7700 and
establish radio communications as soon as possible.
AIM 6-4-2 TRANSPONDER OPERATION DURING TWO-WAY COMMUNICATIONS
FAILURE.
a. If a pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder
experiences a loss of two-way radio capability he should:
1, Adjust his transponder to reply on MODE A/3, Code 7700 for
a period of 1 minute.
2. Then change to Code 7600 and remain on 7600 for a period of
15 minutes or the remainder of the flight, whichever comes first.
3. Repeat steps (1) and (2) as practicable.
b. The pilot should understand that he may not be in an area
of radar coverage.
Checkride
Question/Answers9
1. FAR 91.215 When is altitude reporting capability required
2. Maximum airspeed below 10,000' FAR 91.117
Answer
1. 91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and
use.
(b) All airspace. No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace
described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section,
unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar
beacon transponder ...and that aircraft is equipped with automatic
pressure altitude reporting equipment, having a Mode C capability...
(1) All aircraft in Class A or Class B airspace;
(2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of
a Class B airspace primary airport from the surface upward to
10,000' MSL.
(4) All aircraft.
(i) In the airspace of an Class C airspace, and
(ii) In all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral
boundaries of Class C airspace, upward to 10,000' MSL, and (5)
All aircraft...
(i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District
of Columbia:
(6) At and above 10,000' MSL and below the floor of a positive
control area, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500' AGL;
and
(ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000' MSL within a
10 nautical mile radius of any airport listed in Appendix D of
this part excluding the airspace below 1,200" AGL outside
the airport traffic area for that airport. (There are no such
airports in the Bay Area.
(c) Transponder on operation. While in the airspace as specified
in paragraph (b) of this section or in all controlled airspace,
each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC
transponder maintained in accordance with SEC. 91.413 of this
part shall operate the transponder, including Mode C equipment
if installed, and shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned
by ATC.
2. 91.117 Aircraft speed.
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person
may operate an aircraft below 10,000' MSL at an indicated airspeed
of more than
200 knots. FAR 91.117
Checkride
Question/Answers10
1. Maximum airspeed in an airport traffic area; below the base
of a TCA. Class B or C airspace
2. Discuss the various combinations of light signals, green,
red, white; steady or flashing. 91.125
3. What is the proper procedure for setting altimeter below 18,000'?
Answer
1. (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person
may operate an aircraft within an airport traffic area at an
indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying
a terminal control area, or in a VFR corridor designated through
a terminal control area, at an indicated airspeed of more than
200 knots.
15. 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U. S.
airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
(c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the
following instruments and equipment are required:
(2) Approved position lights.
(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anti-collision
light system...
(4) If the aircraft is operate for hire, one electric landing
light.
(5) An adequate source of electrical energy....
(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind
required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
FAR 91.209 Aircraft lights
No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise...
(a) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(b) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to,
a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft
-
(1) Is clearly illuminated;
(2) Has lighted position lights; or
(3) Is in a area which is marked by obstruction lights. (d) Operate
an aircraft, required ...to be equipped with an anti-collision
light system... However, the anti-collision lights need not be
lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of
operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to
turn the lights off.
2. 91.125 ATC light signals.
Steady green Cleared for takeoff/land Flashing cleared to taxi/return
Steady red Stop/give way to aircraft Flashing taxi clear/don't
land
Alternating red/green caution/caution Flashing white return to
starting
3. 91.121 Altimeter settings
(a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising
altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be,
by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating -
(1) Below 18,000' MSL, to -
(i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along
the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft.;
(ii) If there is not station within the area prescribed in paragraph
(a)(1) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting
of an appropriate available station; or
(iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the
elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter
setting available before departure; ...
Checkride
Question/Answers11
1. When are position lights required______? What other equipment
is required for night flight FAR 91.205C; 91.209
2. What are the minimum safe altitudes over congested area? _____
above and ______ horizontally. Other than congested _______above.
Sparsely populated_______. FAR 91.119
Answer
1. 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U. S.
airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
(c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the
following instruments and equipment are required:
(2) Approved position lights.
(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anti-collision
light system...
(4) If the aircraft is operate for hire, one electric landing
light.
(5) An adequate source of electrical energy....
(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind
required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
FAR 91.209 Aircraft lights
No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise...
(a) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(b) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to,
a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft
-
(1) Is clearly illuminated;
(2) Has lighted position lights; or
(3) Is in a area which is marked by obstruction lights. (d) Operate
an aircraft, required ...to be equipped with an anti-collision
light system... However, the anti-collision lights need not be
lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of
operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to
turn the lights off.
2. 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate
an aircraft below the following altitudes:
(a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property
on the surface.
(b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city,
town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons,
an altitude of 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal
radius of 2,000' of the aircraft.
(c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500' above
the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas.
In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than
500' to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Checkride
Question/Answers12
1. FAR 91.133 How can you obtain a clearance into a prohibited
or restricted area?
2. Far 91.159 Mandatory VFR cardinal altitudes begin at what
AGL altitude? What are the appropriate VFR altitudes above the
foregoing altitude?
3. What are the basic VFR minimums above 10,000' FAR 91.155
4. Procedure for requesting VFR flight following from ATC.
5. How are VFR flight plans filed? Opened? Closed?
Answer
1. 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area
(designated in Part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed,
or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission
of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate....
2. 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level. Except while
holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning,
each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising
flight more than 3,000' above the surface shall maintain the
appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless
otherwise authorized by ATC:
(a) when operating below 18,000' MSL and -
(1) On a magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees, any
odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500'. (such as 3,500,5,500,
(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees,
any even thousand MSL altitude + 500' (such as 4,500, 6,500,
8,500).
3. 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
(a) Except as provided in Sections. 91.155(b0 and 91.157, no
person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility
is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that
prescribed for the corresponding altitude in the following table:
More than 1,200' above the surface and at or above 10,000' MSL
Visibility Distance from clouds
5 statute miles 1,000' above 7,500)
1,000' below
1 mile horizontal
4. AIM Chapter 4
5. AIM Chapter 5 FARs
MUST BE READ IN ENTIRETY
Checkride
Question/Answers13
1. FAR 91.157, AIM Chapter 3 Section 2 What are the dimensions
of Class D airspace? How is it depicted on a sectional? When
must a clearance be given for operations in Class D airspace?
Answer
1. 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
(a) Except as provided in Sec. 93.113k, when a person has received
an appropriate ATC clearance, the special weather minimums of
this section instead of these contained in Sec. 91.155 apply
to the operation of that aircraft by that person in a control
zone under VFR.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in Class D airspace under
VFR except clear of clouds.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft...in Class D airspace under
VFR unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.
(d) No person may take off or land an aircraft...at any airport
in Class D airspace under VFR -
(1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 statute
mile; or
(2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless
flight visibility during landing or takeoff is at least 1 statute
mile.
(e) No person may operate an aircraft... in Class D airspace
under the special weather minimums of this section, between sunrise
and sunset...unless:
(1) That person meets the applicable requirements for instrument
flight under Part 61 of this chapter; and
(2) the aircraft is equipped as required in Sec. 91.205(d)
Class D Airspace
a. Class D airspaces are regulatory in nature and established
as controlled airspace. They extend upward from the surface and
terminate at 2500' AGL. Class D airspace is based on a primary
airport but may include one or more airports and is normally
a circular area within a radius of 4.1 nautical miles around
the primary airport, except that it may include extensions necessary
to include instrument departure and arrival paths.
b. Some basic requirement for designating Class D
airspace is communications and weather observation reporting:
1. Communications capability with aircraft which normally operate
within the Class D airspace must exist down to the runway surface
of the primary airport. Communications may be either direct from
the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the control zone or
by rapid relay through other communications facilities which
are acceptable to that ATC facility.
3. Federally certificated weather observers take hourly and special
weather observations at the primary airport in the control zone
during the times Class D is designated. The required weather
observations must be forwarded expeditiously to the ATC facility
having jurisdiction over the control zones.
c. Class D airspace is depicted on charts (for example on the
Sectional Charts the Class D airspace is outlined by a broken
blue line). If Class D airspace is effective only during certain
hours of the day (a part-time Class D airspace as prescribed
in the regulation) it will be reflected on the charts. AIM 3-2;
and 4-84
Checkride
Question/Answers14
1. What are the common transponder codes? AIM FARs
Answer
1. AIM 1-2 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL RADAR BEACON SYSTEM (ATCRBS)
1200 VFR, 7700 emergency, 7600 no radio, 7500 hijack
a. the ATCRBS, sometimes referred to as secondary surveillance
radar, consists of three main components:
1. Interrogator. Primary radar relies on a signal transmitted
from the radar antenna site and for this signal to be reflected
or "bounced back" from an object (such as an aircraft).
this reflected signal is then displayed as a "target"
on the controller's radarscope. In the ATCRBS, the interrogator,
a ground based radar beacon transmitter-receiver, scans in synchronism
with the primary radar and transmits discrete radio signals which
repetitiously request all transponders, on the mode being used,
to reply. The replies received are then mixed with the primary
returns and both are displayed on the same radar scope.
2. Transponder. This airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver
automatically receives the signals from the interrogator and
selectively replies with a specific pulse group (code) only to
those interrogations being received on the mode to which it is
set. These replies are independent of, and much stronger than
a primary radar return.
3. Radarscope. The radarscope used by the controller displays
returns from both the primary radar system and the ATCRBS. These
returns, called targets, are what the controller refers to in
the control and separation of traffic.
b. the job of identifying and maintaining identification of primary
radar targets is a long and tedious task for the controller.
Some of the advantages of ATCRBS over primary radar area:
1. Reinforcement of radar targets
2. Rapid target identification
3. Unique display of selected codes.
c. a part of the ATCRBS ground equipment is the decoder. This
equipment enables the controller to assign discrete transponder
codes to each aircraft under his control. Normally only one code
will be assigned for the entire flight. Assignments are made
by the ARTCC computer on the basis of the National Beacon Code
Allocation Plan. The equipment is also designed to receive MODE
C altitude information from the aircraft.
AIM Chapter 4 is too long and should be read and studied from
the AIM
Checkride
Question/Answers15
1. What are the basic VFR minimums between 1,200 and 10,000'
MSL? FAR 91.155
2. What are the basic VFR minimums for flight within 1200' of
the surface in controlled airspace? Uncontrolled airspace day?
Night? FAR 91.155
3. Purpose for the following frequencies:
121.5, 122.0, 122.9, 122.8, 122.2, 122.95, 122.75, 122.85
4. Purpose of transponder codes?.
Answer
1. More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000'
MSL.
Visibility Distance from clouds
Within controlled
airspace: 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal
Outside controlled
airspace: 1 statute mile 500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal
Anytime:
Night 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal
2. 1200 feet or less above the surface-
Within controlled
airspace: 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000" above
2,000' horizontal
Outside controlled
airspace - Day 1 statute mile Clear of clouds
Night 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
Exception 2,000' horizontal
Unless within 1/2 mile of airport and in pattern.
3. AIM 4-8
121.5 Emergency frequency which is monitored by ATC and airlines.
122.0 Flight Watch for weather enroute
122.9 Multicom CTAF frequency at airports not having UNICOM.
122.8 One of several UNICOM CTAF frequencies where local FBO
may answer.
122.2 Almost universal FSS frequency to be tried if no more discrete
frequency is unknown.
122.95 Universal UNICOM frequency at airports with ATC tower.
122.75 Aircraft to aircraft frequency
122.85 Aircraft to aircraft frequency(SPECIAL AUTHORIZED USE
ONLY)
4. AIM Chapter 6
Checkride
Question/Answers16
1. The procedure for requesting a DF steer.
2. What is the lower limit of controlled airspace in the area
not tinted?. What kinds of airspace is from the surface to 1200'
AGL?
3. What is the upper limit of the controlled airspace depicted
on the sectional?
4. How does a restricted area differ from a warning area?
Answer
1. Establish contact with FSS. Usually the FSS will refer an
aircraft to a radar facility in an actual emergency. A non-DF
FSS has emergency capability to assist pilots by talking the
pilot through the steps for a VOR fix or even a series of them
as required.
If the aircraft is below/beyond radar coverage but in radio contact
the DF may be the best option. Rancho FSS near Sacramento has
DF capability. Indicate purpose for request of DF, practice,
misplaced, finding airport, etc. Follow procedure instructions
exactly. Altitude is limiting factor for DF range. Most common
fault is failure to set heading indicator to correspond with
compass.
Typical procedure:
1. FSS will assign discrete frequency and go through a list of
questions covering, flight conditions, altitude, heading, fuel
on board, souls on board, last known position, VOR capability,
etc. (It is essential that all assigned headings be flown precisely
to insure accuracy.)
2. Pilot will be told to key microphone for 5-10 seconds without
speaking and then give aircraft identification. (The DF (direction
finder) will give FSS line from station to aircraft.)
OPTIONS:
3a. Pilot will be given heading to fly down the "beam"
to the FSS station and airport.
3b. Pilot will be given heading to fly at right angles to "beam"
and told to fly that heading(a given number of seconds) until
told to key his radio again. Using this information the FSS can
easily compute how long it will take the pilot to fly to the
station.
3c. The FSS will give directions as to selection of VOR frequency
with nearest to 90 degree intersection. Pilot will be told to
set frequency, ident, center needle FROM, and give radial from
VOR. FSS will draw intersection of "beam" and VOR radial
for aircraft location. Heading will be suggested and repeated
"beam"/VOR readings can be used to determine track.
Aircraft can be directed by FSS to any location. FSS personnel
are required to be proficient in these procedures and appreciate
the opportunity to practice.
2. All airspace that is not bordered by magenta shaded line makes
up an instrument enroute transition area. Transition areas are
designed to contain IFR operations in controlled airspace.
3. Sectional legend. 18,000'
4. Warning areas are in international waters so only U. S. aircraft
are subject to flight restrictions.
Checkride
Question/Answers17
1. Who is notified in the event of an overdue aircraft
believed to have had an accident?
2.Why does the nose of a Cessna drop when power is reduced?
3. What paper work is required for performing preventive maintenance?
4. When must an aircraft incident be reported?
5. What is required in the cockpit before hand propping?
6. How is the engine operated with a constant speed propeller?
7. Why do aircraft have flaps?
Answer
1. Immediate notification of the NTSB field office is required.
2. Reduction of power reduces downwash over elevators and reduces
elevator authority.
3. Dated, signed, with type of certificate of person approving
and description of work in aircraft logbooks.
4. Incidents must be reported only when requested by the FAA
or NTSB.
5. A competent pilot must be at the controls.
6. Throttle controls power via manifold pressure. Prop controls
rpm.
7. Flaps allow steeper approaches without increase in airspeed.
Checkride
Question/Answers18
1. When does Class D airspace exist?
2. What are SVFR minimums?
3.. Float type carburetors are subject to sticking. What could
you do in event of sudden engine stoppage?
4. What are symptoms of carburetor ice?
5. What is needed to have structural icing?
6. What physical symptom occurs in a pilot suffering from emotional
tension, anxiety, or fear?
7. What is the meaning of VHF/DF in the A/FD?
8. How do you check the operation of the ELT?
9. What communications is required at all tower-controlled airports.
10, What advantage is fuel injection to carburetors in regard
to icing.
11. What minimum equipment is required for Class B operations.
12. At high-density altitude an magneto check is o.k. …
C.H. causes engine roughness. Why.
13. With carburetor ice, which comes first drop in rpm or engine
roughness?
14, How is the mixture of air and fuel affected by C.H.?
15. How soon must the NTSB be informed of substantial damage
to an aircraft.
16. Who is responsible for seeing that proper maintenance records
are kept in the logbooks?
17. What wreckage movement is allowed in an aircraft accident?
Answer
1. Only when the control tower is operating.
2. SVFR clearances cannot be issued if visibility is less than
one mile.
3. Drastically lean the mixture. (Worked for me.)
4. There will be a gradual drop in RPM. Engine roughness occurs
later.
5. Visible moisture is required for structural icing.
6. Hyperventilation (Rapid shallow breathing)
7. The facility (FSS) has ability to use direction finding as
a method of aircraft location.
8. If there is no auxiliary switch, you should tune your radio
to 121.5 prior to shutdown.
9. Two way communication with ATC is required for landings or
takeoff.
10. Fuel injection systems are not considered susceptible to
icing.
11. Two way communications, transponder and altitude encoder
12. Check mixture
13. Drop in rpm comes before roughness at the onset of carburetor
ice.
14. Mixture becomes richer.
15. For substantial damage to an aircraft the NTSB must be informed
immediately.
16. The owner or operator is responsible for the records kept
in the aircraft logbooks.
17. Wreckage may be moved only to prevent further damage.
Checkride
Question/Answers19
1. How can you adapt eyes to night conditions?
2. How is night defined?
3. How can you identify the taxiway edge lights?
4.What rotating beacon indicates a military airport?
5. What light signal from the tower is a clearance to land?
6. How does the pilot set medium intensity lights?
7. What flight rule exists in flying a VASI equipped runway?
8. How can you visually tell if the airport is below VFR minimums?
9. When should position lights be displayed by aircraft in the
continental U.S.?
10. What are VFR night operation fuel requirements
11. How can you train yourself to see better at night?
12. What causes northerly turning error in a compass?
13. What should the compass during taxiing do?
14. In a level standard rate turn for 360 degrees when will the
compass be most accurate?
15. In the southern hemisphere how would the compass indicate
when a standard rate turn is initiated to the right from a 360
heading?
16. Regardless of hemisphere what should a compass indicate in
a smooch standard rate turn to the left or right?
Answers
1. Avoid bright lights 30 minutes before flying. (FAA answer
but not the best answer)
2. Night is the time from the end of evening civil twilight to
the beginning of morning civil twilight.
3. Taxiway edge lights are omni-directional blue lights.
4. Military rotating beacons use a green flash followed by two
quick white flashes.
5. A steady green light is a clearance to land.
6. Medium intensity lights are set by a pilot by seven clicks
followed by five clicks.
7.lAn aircraft must remain at or above the VASI glide slope.
8. An airport-rotating beacon operating in daylight is indicative
that conditions are less than VFR.
9. Position lights should operate from sunset to sunrise.
10. Night VFR fuel requirements are to destination and then fly
normal cruise for 45 minutes.
11. Avoid looking directly at a particular spot. Scan to use
your peripheral vision.
12 Northerly turn error is the worst of the dip errors caused
by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field. The
dip is to the low side of the turn.
13. During taxi the magnetic compass swing freely and indicate
appropriate headings.
14. East and West
15. In the southern hemisphere the compass initially indicates
a turn to the right. In the northern hemisphere it indicates
a turn to the left.
16. Compass would indicate approximately the correct headings
initially.
Checkride
Question/Answers20
1. Where are most PIREPs given?
2. How many SVFR aircraft can operate in Class D airspace?
3. What can make all SVFR aircraft either leave the airspace
or land?
4. What is altimeter setting to use prior to takeoff if none
is available?
5. What direction is a magnetic heading of 135 degrees using
compass direction terms?
6. What is required for advection fog to go from sea to land?
7. How is the weight of unusable fuel and un-drainable oil figured?
8. When is it necessary to plan an alternate course of action
for a flight?
9.Why a constant-speed propeller?
10.Why does an aircraft nose down with reduction of power?
11.When is P-factor in all its forms having the greatest effect?
12 What must a pilot require of passengers regarding the use
of seat belts?
13. For takeoff/landing proficiency with passengers what are
the requirements?
14. What is the aircraft air to air frequency?
15. What is the frequency for aircraft weather only?
16. What form is used in contacting an FSS?
Answer:
1. Most PIREPs are given in the southern plains of the U.S.
2. As many SVFR aircraft as ATC feels it can handle.
3. The arrival or departure of a single IFR aircraft will clear
the airspace of all other aircraft, unless SVFR aircraft all
accept avoidance responsibility.
4. Use airport elevation to set altimeter.
5. Southeast.
6. Advection fog will appear over land only through the influence
of wind.
7. Unusable fuel and undrainable oil are part of the aircraft
empty weight.
8. Any flight from the vicinity of the airport must include an
alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed
as planned.
9. A constant-speed propeller let you chose pitch for most efficient
operation.
10. Elevator effectiveness depends on airflow over it. Reducing
power reduces airflow and effective downward pressure of the
elevator. This allows the nose to fall.
11. P-factor is the strongest at high power and high angles of
attack.
12. The pilot must notify them to fasten their safety belts during
taxi, takeoff, and landing. They must be informed as to how to
release the belts
13 Takeoffs and landings must be from a full stop, three within
the past 90 days. The requirement is the same for day or night.
However, fulfilling the night requirement satisfies the day requirement
while the day requirement does not fulfill the night requirement.
14. 122.75 is the only general use air to air frequency; and,
122.85 is an air to air rescue/search frequency; 123.4 is an
air to air flight test frequency; and, 123.025 is air to air
for helicopters.
15. 122.0 is the Flight Watch weather frequency. They have a
HiWAS frequency in the California area of 135.7, which can be
used if 122.0 does not work. 122.0 is nation wide but each major
FSS has a different HiWAS frequency.
16. FSS call-up begins by calling the FSS as ---Radio, aircraft
identification, frequency listening on…over.
Checkride
Question/Answers21
1. What form is used to contact Flight Watch?
2. What form is used in initial call-up to a radar facility?
3. What frequency should you use when a part-time tower closes?
4. What should you do regarding ATC instructions?
5. When should a piston engine not be leaned for high-density
altitude departures?
6. When can the application of carburetor heat be ineffective?
(2 answers)
7. What is the effect of lighting on landing descents?
8. On a heading of 176 degrees, what would be an appropriate
VFR altitude above 3000' AGL
9. Below 3000' AGL how do your conform with the hemispheric rule?
10. What is a lowest altitude you are ever allowed to fly?
11. What is the minimum cloud clearance allowed in Class B airspace?
12. How is night fuel requirements different from day fuel requirements?
13. How is a clearance different from permission?
14. What prior approval is required before entering an Alert
Area?
15. What is the minimum altitude for aerobatic flight?
Answer
1. Initial call-up is aircraft identification and the name of
the nearest VOR. This enables the specialist to select the most
appropriate radio to use.
2. Initial call-up to a radar facility is the name of the facility,
aircraft identification and…over. This gives the specialist
time to make all the decisions as to his work load etc. that
makes it possible for him to accept you.
3. When the tower closes the CTAF is the tower frequency.
4. If the instruction has urgency…do it and then ask questions.
Otherwise, read it back for confirmation; or ask for clarification.
You always have the emergency right to do what you want.
5. A turbo-charged engine should not be leaned for departures.
6. 1. Where there is no ice in the carburetor. 2. If the engine
is too cool to produce adequate heat.
7. Bright lights tend to make pilots descend too soon. Dim lights
tend to keep pilots higher.
8. You can't say since magnetic courses determine hemispheric
rule.
9. You can't follow the rule below 3000 AGL since it does not
apply.
10. You can only fly so low as will allow a safe landing.
11. You must remain clear of clouds.
12. Night requires an additional 15-minute reserve beyond initial
destination.
13. The FAA can grant a clearance but cannot give permission.
14. No prior approval is required for flight into an Alert Area.
Caution is required.
15. No aerobatic flight can take place below 1500' AGL.
Checkride
Question/Answers22
1. What is required in order to fly in formation with another
aircraft?
2. What special vision is used at night for better collision
avoidance?
3. What is the METAR code for a calm wind?
4. What airspace requires only prior contact with ATC before
entry?
5. At what times is Class D airspace effective?
6. When is two-way radio communications with ATC required for
pattern operations?
7. What is indicated when the rotating beacon is operational
during daytime?
8. What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements of
SVFR?
9. What directions and speeds are used for winds aloft forecasts?
10. How would you describe hypoxia?
11. What is the basic collision avoidance used in Alert Areas?
12. What instruments are affected by loss of pitot tube and static
air?
13. What three aspects of the airplane are affected by density
altitude?
14. What atmospheric conditions reduce aircraft performance?
15. Define density altitude.
16. If altimeter settings are different by .70 what will be the
difference in altitude?
17. When can a pilot ignore ATC?
Answers
1. Only by prior arrangement can two aircraft fly in formation.
2. Night scanning is best when using peripheral vision off center
from normal vision. Small sectors only.
3. 0000 is the metar code for calm wind.
4. Class C requirement is only the establishment of radio contact.
This is accomplished when ATC addresses the aircraft by its alpha
numeric name?
5.Class D airspace is effective only when the tower is open.
6. Two-way communications is required with all towers for takeoffs
and landings.
7. The towered airport is below VFR minimums. VFR aircraft are
required to get SVFR clearances.
8. Aircraft on SVFR clearances are required to remain clear of
clouds and have one mile flight visibility.
9. Winds aloft are given relative to true north in knots.
10. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency.
11. Alert areas depend on the 'see and be seen' requirement.
12. Pitot and/or static air is required for altimeter, airspeed
indicator and vertical speed indicator.
13. Density altitude reduces engine power, wing lift, and propeller
thrust.
14. High-density altitudes, high temperatures and humidity will
reduce aircraft performance.
15. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard
temperature.
16. Altitude will be changes plus/minus 70 feet.
17. By declaring an emergency a pilot can ignore ATC.
Checkride
Question/Answers23
1. What piloting procedure is required for runways that have
a visual approach slope indicator (VASI)? What is the definition
of Vso?
2. When are radio communications with ATC required for landings
or takeoff?
3. What are the minimum time limits and types for landings required
of any pilot carrying passengers day or night?
4. While on final ATC gives you alternating red and green followed
by flashing red lights. What to do?
5. At what point in time will landings count as 'night' landings?
6. What specific preflight must be done for flights away from
the area?.
7. What is the meaning of a green light from ATC while you are
airborne?
8. What is the minimum safe altitude for an aircraft anywhere?
9. What is the right-of-way criteria for multiple landing aircraft?
10 cP, mp and mT are the three air mass types. Arrange them in
order from most moisture to least
11. Descriptive words for clouds come from the Latin. Cumulus
= heaped; stratus - layered. What is cirrus?
12. The original 4-C's for emergencies have now become 5-C's.
What are they?
13. For what reasons will a runway have a displaced threshold?
14. When does an aircraft produce the worst wake vortices?
15. When is the AIM recommended base to final turn made?
16. Where in the pattern should an aircraft begin its descent
for landing?
17. CCR has a Class-D radius of 3.1 nautical miles and a height
of 2500'.
18. When does the 200-kt speed become effective?
19. Why do mountain waves and rotor clouds remain for periods
of time?
20. What is the non-control information under continuous broadcast
at towered airports called?
21. How do you know you are below the glide slope of a three
color VASI?
22. What cam you do to improve engine cooling in a climb?
23. What instrument can first indicate that you have too little
oil?
24. Victor airways can extend from 700' to 18,000'. What is lowest
cloud clearance below 10.000'?
25. When must you give a detailed report of an emergency?
Answer:
1.All pilots, IFR and VFR are required to maintain an altitude
at or above the glide slope.
2.Vso is the stall speed of an aircraft configured for minimum
steady flight in the landing configuration
3. Radio communications are required at all tower-controlled
airports unless otherwise authorized.
4. Pilots are required to have had in the past 90-days three
night full stop landings for night.
5. Red and green means exercise extreme caution…flashing
red means unsafe for landing.
6. Only landings that take place between one hour after sunset
and one hour before sunrise count as night landings.
7. The pilot must determine runway lengths or intended used and
aircraft performance requirements.
8. A solid green light means you are cleared to land.
9. Required altitude must be sufficient to allow emergency landing
without hazard to persons or property.
10. The lowest aircraft has the right of way.
11. mT (maritime tropical ) has most moisture, cP (continental
polar) has the least.
12. Cirrus means a wisp of hair and describes clouds found above
16,500'.
13. 5-C's are climb, communicate, confess, comply and conserve.
14. Thresholds are displaced to reduce noise footprints and to
increase obstacle clearance.
15 Worst vortex is created when slow, heavy, and clean.
16. AIM recommends that base to final turn be made so as to give
a final approach of 1/4 mile.
17. AIM recommends beginning descent from abeam the numbers.
Local authorities may say when turning base.
18. The 200 kt speed limit is required when below 2500' AGL of
primary airport and four miles (91.117b)
19. Waves and rotors persist only because the air in the vicinity
is so stable. Unstable conditions would dissipate them.
20. ATIS or Automatic Terminal Information Service
21. Red light indicates below the glide slope.
22. Reducing rate of climb and increasing airspeed will improve
cooling in a climb.
23. Low oil is first shown on the oil temperature gauge.
24. VFR cloud clearance on airways below 10,000' require 500'
below; 1000' above; and, 2000' to the side.
25. A report of an emergency is required of a pilot only by ATC
request.
Checkride
Question/Answers24
1. What are the parameters of MVFR?
2. What precaution should be taken if the magneto check is inadvertently
placed on OFF?
3. What is the weight of a heavy and a large aircraft?
4. What are the visual signs of a microburst?
5. What is the relationship between horizontal lift and centrifugal
force in a coordinated turn?
6. When making a 360-degree turn when will the compass read most
accurately?
7. Under what conditions should you advise the tower of your
position when ready for departure?
8. When is lift equal to weight?
9. Which of the four forces affecting flight acts parallel to
the flight path?
10. When does an airport rotating beacon operate during daylight
hours?
11. What is always true about wind direction when you fly across
a front?
12. What is the meaning of the amber light from a tri-color VASI?
13. What does the VHD/DF use as a means to locate an aircraft?
14. What is the recommended height AGL for aircraft over national
wildlife refuges?
15. What inflight advisory warns of severe icing and thunderstorms?
16. How come in a forward slip the plane is going sideways, and
in a side slip the plane is going forward?
Answer
1. Marginal VFR has ceiling between one and three thousand feet
with visibility between three and five statute miles.
2. The engine will probably backfire if the throttle is not completely
out. (off)
3. Heavy is 255,0000 pounds and up; large is from 41,000 up to
255,000 pounds.
4. Visual signs of a microburst are heavy rain virga, and a ring
of blowing dust.
5. In a coordinated turn horizontal lift and centrifugal force
are equal.
6. A compass will read most accurately when passing through 090
and 270 when turning
7. You should always advise the tower when you are making an
intersection departure.
8. Lift is equal to weight only in horizontal flight.
. Airport beacons operate during daylight hours when the airport
is below VFR minimums.
11. Winds on opposite sides of a weather front are always from
different directions.
12. The tri-color VASI has red for low, green for on path and
amber for above glide path.
13. The Very High Frequency/Direction Finder uses a oscilloscope
and a direction finding sensor to draw an electronic line to
the aircraft VHF transmitter. The pilot is told to key the microphone
without talking for a few seconds until the signal is located.
Then various headings can be assigned to locate the aircraft
with VOR radials or using the 1:60 rule to give the pilot time
to fly to station.. System is nearly obsolete.
14. Altitude above both national and state refuges is 2000' AGL.
Violators can be prosecuted.
15. The convective SIGMET warns of thunderstorms.
16.The sideslip was named first. In a sideslip, you change course
to the side. They needed name for
the other slip where you don't change course, so they called
it a forward slip, since you don't change the
forward direction of travel.
Checkride
Question/Answers25
1. Where do you find your aircraft's operating limitations?
2. How are VFR night approaches different than approaches made
in day light?
3. What is the primary hazard of flying in freezing rain.
4. How do you look for traffic at night?
5. Why should automotive oil not be used in aircraft?
6. How do you indicate distress to intercepting military aircraft?
7. What does the presence of silicon indicate in an aircraft
oil analysis?
8. When can an aircraft plan to fly into Class Bravo airspace
without a transponder.
9. How long can a non-pressurized flight continue above below
14,000 feet without oxygen
Answer
1. Limitations are found in the current, FAA-approved flight
manual, manual material, markings, and placards.
2. They're not.
3. Freezing rain can bring an aircraft down by causing clear
icing on all aircraft surfaces.
4. At night you should look to the side of what you are trying
to see and scan slowly.
5. The higher cylinder temperatures of aircraft will cause automotive
additives to cause hot-spots, etc
6. The flashing of all available lights is a distress signal
to intercepting military aircraft.
7. Silicon comes from airborne contaminants. In aircraft oil
it indicates the air filter needs replacement.
8. Non-transponder aircraft can enter Class Bravo airspace by
giving ATC one-hour notice.
9. The FAR inversely allow flight above 12,500 for one-half hour
and require crew to use oxygen above 14,000.
Checkride
Question/ without Answers26
1. If convicted of a motor vehicle action, when must you
notify the FAA in writing?
2. When must you notify the FAA of an address change?
3. What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers?
4. What is the class and expiration date of your medical?
5. What is required for you to be PIC?
6. What are the required inspections for this aircraft as used?
7. When is it legal to fly without operating navigational lights?
8. What is the lowest VFR altitude than can be flown over a 2850-foot
hill?
9. What are the minimum fuel requirements for VFR?
10. What are the flight clearances required about a filled stadium?
11. When must passengers wear seatbelts?
12. What is required information for a non-local flight?
13. What is the flight time limit for alcohol consumption?
14. What are the 'always required on aircraft' documents?
15. Who is the responsible party for determining airworthiness?
16. What is the legality of a straight-in to a non-tower airport?
17. What right of way is given by a clearance to taxi to a runway?
18. How do you depart following a Lear jet?
19. What are the symptoms of CO poisoning?
20. What non-charted frequencies are monitored by an FSS?
21. How do you find what frequency to use when the tower closes?
22. How do you determine if a transponder is required at a given
airport?
23. What are VFR minimums for flight into a Class C airport?
24. At 1600 feet AGL over a non-towered airport, what are the
VFR minimums?
25. Describe communications requirements for all classes of airports?
26. How can you find all available information about an airport?
27. Where can you find all available frequencies on a sectional
chart?
28. Why is a slip presumed to be safer than a skid?
29. What is the difference between Va and Vref?
30. Why do older American planes tend to turn left while English
planes turn right?
31. If you apply too much left rudder in a left turn where is
the ball?
32. What is the basic spin recovery procedure for this aircraft?
33. What is aircraft fuel grade, capacity, useful and hourly
consumption?
34. How do you clear a flooded engine?
35. What are minimum/maximum oil temperatures?
36. How do we know of the existence of carburetor ice?
37. How many fuel sumps does the aircraft have?
38. How do you determine true airspeed?
39. What is meant by maximum demonstrated crosswind component
of this airplane?
40. Pick a temperature and airport and figure density altitude.
What is required to takeoff over 50'?
41. Name as many V-speeds for this aircraft as you can. Now use
the POH.
42. With us in the aircraft and full fuel, how much cabin weight
remains to reach gross?
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